Nursing Elites

1. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?

• A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
• B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
• C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient's private decisions regarding healthcare.
• D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.

2. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

3. A nurse discovers that another nurse has administered an enema to a client even though the client told the nurse that he did not want one. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor
• B. Confront the nurse who gave the enema and inform the nurse that she may face charges of battery
• C. Tell the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema
• D. Contact the client's health care provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client's consent, which violates the client's rights. If a nurse discovers such an incident, they should report it to the nursing supervisor. Confronting the nurse and threatening charges of battery could lead to unnecessary conflict. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing is incorrect as it goes against the client's wishes. While the health care provider may need to be notified eventually, the first step should be reporting the incident to the nursing supervisor to address the violation appropriately.

4. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?

• A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
• B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
• C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
• D. a client diagnosed with AIDS

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.

5. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to developing heartburn as a result of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. lettuce
• B. eggs
• C. chocolate
• D. butterscotch

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is chocolate. Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure, leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. Lettuce and eggs do not significantly affect LES pressure, making them less likely to trigger GERD symptoms. Butterscotch, like lettuce and eggs, does not have a notable effect on LES pressure, so it is not as likely to worsen GERD symptoms as chocolate. Therefore, chocolate is the food to be avoided by clients prone to heartburn due to GERD.

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