Nursing Elites

1. A client is refusing to stay in the hospital because he does not agree with his healthcare treatment plan. The nurse stops the client from leaving due to concern for his health. Which of these legal charges could the nurse face?

• A. False imprisonment, as the nurse is not allowing the client to leave as he has decided to.
• B. Malpractice, as the nurse is intentionally keeping the patient from making his own decisions, thus violating that nursing duty.
• C. Invasion of privacy, as the nurse is getting involved in the patient's private decisions regarding healthcare.
• D. Negligence, as the nurse ignored the client's right to choose regarding his healthcare.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refusing to let a client leave against medical advice (AMA) is a form of false imprisonment. In this scenario, the nurse is restricting the client's freedom of movement by preventing him from leaving the hospital, even though he has expressed his wish to leave. False imprisonment is a legal charge the nurse could face in this situation. The other options are incorrect: - Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide adequate care, not allowing a patient to make their own decisions. - Invasion of privacy involves disclosing confidential information without consent, not preventing a patient from leaving. - Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care, but it does not specifically address the act of restricting a patient from leaving against their wishes.

2. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

3. A nurse discovers that another nurse has administered an enema to a client even though the client told the nurse that he did not want one. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor
• B. Confront the nurse who gave the enema and inform the nurse that she may face charges of battery
• C. Tell the client that the nurse did the right thing in giving the enema
• D. Contact the client's health care provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Battery is any intentional touching of a client without the client's consent, which violates the client's rights. If a nurse discovers such an incident, they should report it to the nursing supervisor. Confronting the nurse and threatening charges of battery could lead to unnecessary conflict. Telling the client that the nurse did the right thing is incorrect as it goes against the client's wishes. While the health care provider may need to be notified eventually, the first step should be reporting the incident to the nursing supervisor to address the violation appropriately.

4. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

• A. a procedure for changing IV tubing.
• B. a policy for staffing.
• C. the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
• D. a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

5. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

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