Nursing Elites

1. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information
• B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client
• C. Check the physician's progress notes to see if understanding has been documented
• D. Check with the client's family to see if they understand the procedure fully

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.

2. Which of the following is not considered one of the five rights of medication administration?

• A. client
• B. drug
• C. dose
• D. routine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The five rights of medication administration are dose, client, drug, route, and time. The correct answer is 'routine' as it is not commonly recognized as one of the essential rights in medication administration. Choice A, client, is necessary to ensure the right medication is administered to the right individual. Choice B, drug, is crucial to confirm the correct medication is given. Choice C, dose, is essential to ensure the right amount of medication is administered. Choice D, routine, is not typically included in the five rights of medication administration and is therefore the correct answer.

3. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

4. After undergoing gastric resection, the client is informed by the nurse that which of the following meals is most likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach?

• A. a high-protein meal
• B. a high-fat meal
• C. a large meal regardless of nutrient content
• D. a high-carbohydrate meal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After gastric resection, meals high in carbohydrates are more likely to cause rapid emptying of the stomach. Carbohydrates stimulate the release of gastrin, which accelerates gastric emptying. On the other hand, high-fat and high-protein meals tend to delay gastric emptying. A large meal, regardless of nutrient content, can also delay gastric emptying due to the increased volume of food that needs to be processed.

5. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A.
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale:

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