the nurse on the 311 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and inds that the conse
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.

2. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

3. A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which action reflects the use of evidence-based practice in the care of the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care that integrates the client's preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. In the case of pulmonary tuberculosis, which is transmitted through the airborne route, keeping the door to the client's room closed is crucial to prevent the spread of infection. Placing the client in a semiprivate room with a cohort client is not recommended for airborne precautions; a private room is required to prevent transmission. Fitting the client for an N95 or HEPA mask is essential for the nurse's protection when entering the room, not for the client to wear at all times. Using a surgical mask when entering the client's room is not sufficient for airborne precautions; an N95 or HEPA mask is necessary.

4. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, which typically presents with maculopapular lesions around the mouth with honey-colored drainage, worsening with scratching. It is important to advise the caregiver that the history and presentation are indicative of impetigo, an infectious skin condition caused by bacteria. Treatment usually involves antibiotic therapy. Choice A is incorrect because chickenpox typically presents with a vesicular rash following a history of high fever. Choice B is incorrect as impetigo is contagious and requires precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Choice D is incorrect as impetigo is contagious irrespective of open wounds or lesions in others.

5. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

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