physical examination of a client regarding mobility status should
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. When assessing a client's mobility status, the physical examination should start with:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's mobility status, it is crucial to start by examining their gait. Gait assessment is usually conducted as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is described as smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without the need for assistive devices. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard practice of beginning the assessment of mobility status with gait examination.

2. A client scheduled for surgery tells the nurse that he signed an informed consent for the surgical procedure but was never told about the risks of the surgery. The nurse serves as the client's advocate by undertaking which action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the client's right to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. In this scenario, the nurse should document in the client's record that the client was not informed about the risks of the surgery. This action ensures that the issue is officially noted and can be addressed by the healthcare team. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal is incorrect because it dismisses the client's concerns and does not address the lack of information provided. Writing a note on the client's chart to inform the surgeon is not as effective as ensuring that the issue is officially documented in the client's record, where it can be reviewed and addressed by the healthcare team. Informing the surgeon verbally is not as reliable as documenting the concern in the client's record, which provides a formal and lasting record for review and follow-up.

3. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

4. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

5. A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs does not indicate CHF?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Compulsive behavior is not a clinical sign typically associated with congestive heart failure (CHF). CHF commonly presents with symptoms such as increased body weight due to fluid retention, elevated heart rate as the heart works harder to pump blood effectively, and lower extremity edema caused by fluid buildup. While behavioral changes can occur in response to illness, compulsive behavior is not a typical indicator of CHF. Choices A, B, and C are more commonly linked to CHF and should be monitored in patients with this condition.

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