Nursing Elites

1. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

2. People-related supervisory tasks include all of the following except:

• A. coaching
• B. encouraging
• C. target setting
• D. rewarding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: People-related supervisory tasks involve direct interaction with individuals performing the work. Coaching, encouraging, rewarding, evaluating, and facilitating are all part of these tasks as they focus on supporting and motivating employees. Target setting, on the other hand, is a task-centered responsibility that involves projecting goals or objectives to be accomplished. It focuses more on setting objectives and goals rather than directly interacting with individuals, making it the exception among the given choices.

3. The client has asked if you would be able to offer any alternative or complementary therapy during their hospitalization. Which of the following would be appropriate to suggest?

• A. Physical therapy
• B. Music therapy
• C. Psychiatric therapy
• D. Occupational therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Music therapy is an appropriate suggestion as an alternative or complementary therapy during hospitalization. Music therapy can help improve the client's condition and comfort level by providing emotional support and reducing stress. Physical therapy and occupational therapy are crucial for rehabilitation and improving physical function, while psychiatric therapy focuses on mental health treatment. These therapies are essential components of care but are not typically considered alternative or complementary therapies in this context.

4. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

5. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

• A. The client's urine may turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

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