a new mother asks the nurse i was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy does that mean that my infant is protected against infec
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

2. Why would a nurse employed at a hospital be asked by a nurse manager to review the organizational chart?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be familiar with the organization's line of authority.' Organizational charts provide a visual representation of the chain of command, reporting relationships, and structure within an organization. This helps employees understand who they report to, who reports to them, and the overall hierarchy. Choice A is incorrect because understanding the geographic area served is more about the organization's scope, not depicted in an organizational chart. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to the organization's reason for existence, usually found in its mission statement. Choice D is incorrect as beliefs and values are linked to the organization's culture, not typically shown in an organizational chart.

3. A nurse is assisting with data collection of a client who has sustained circumferential burns of both legs. What should the nurse examine first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for a client with circumferential burns to the legs is to examine peripheral pulses. This is essential to ensure adequate circulation to the extremities. Circumferential burns can lead to compartment syndrome, causing decreased circulation to the affected limbs. Checking peripheral pulses is crucial to monitor for any signs of compromised circulation. While heart rate and blood pressure are important assessments in general, in the context of circumferential burns, the immediate concern is the risk of impaired circulation to the extremities. Therefore, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence in this situation.

4. A health care provider asks the nurse caring for a client with a new colostomy to request the hospital's stoma nurse to visit the client and assist with colostomy care. The nurse initiates the consultation, understanding that the stoma nurse will be able to influence the client because of which type of power?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Power is the ability to influence others to achieve goals. Expert power results from knowledge and skills that one possesses that are needed by others. In this scenario, the stoma nurse's expertise in colostomy care gives them the ability to influence the client effectively. Reward power is based on the ability to grant rewards and favors, which is not applicable in this situation. Coercive power is based on fear and the ability to punish, which is not the case in seeking assistance for colostomy care. Referent power results from followers' desire to identify with a powerful person, which is not the primary influence in this context.

5. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

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