Nursing Elites

1. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

2. What is involved in client education by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client everything about their disease, what will happen in the course of the disease, and the outcome.
• B. Giving information to the client that is accurate and understandable.
• C. Informing the client that the pain they experience might not be real.
• D. Administering medication to the client when they experience pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Client education by the nurse involves providing accurate and understandable information to the client. It is essential to offer relevant details without overwhelming them, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because providing excessive details can confuse the client rather than empower them with necessary knowledge. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the role of the nurse to question the reality of a client's pain; instead, they should address and manage the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as client education focuses on providing information and empowering clients with knowledge, not just administering medication.

3. What is distraction therapy?

• A. Focusing one's attention on stimuli other than pain.
• B. Cognitive reappraisal.
• C. The replacement of positive images of pain with other images.
• D. The use of medication and meditation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Distraction therapy involves directing attention away from pain towards positive stimuli, which can help reduce the perception of pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately defines distraction therapy. Cognitive reappraisal (Choice B) involves changing the way one thinks about a situation to alter its emotional impact, which is different from distraction therapy. Choice C is incorrect because distraction therapy does not involve replacing images of pain with other images, but rather focusing on something unrelated. Choice D is incorrect as distraction therapy does not necessarily involve medication or meditation, but rather the redirection of attention.

4. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

5. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?

• A. Do nothing to the client.
• B. Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.
• C. Help the client stay in the bed without falling out.
• D. Help the client with better posture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.

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