Nursing Elites

1. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
• B. Call the nursing supervisor.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
• D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.

2. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

3. Which of the following client statements indicates adequate understanding of preparation for electroencephalography?

• A. "I don't need to eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I need to wash my hair before the test."?
• C. "I need to remove metal jewelry."?
• D. "I can't take aspirin before the test."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is, 'I need to wash my hair before the test.' Washing the hair is necessary to remove hair products that could interfere with electrode attachment to the scalp. Restricting food or drink is not required, except for avoiding caffeinated beverages. Removing metal jewelry is unnecessary for an electroencephalography procedure. Aspirin does not need to be avoided before the test; medications like anticonvulsants, tranquilizers, barbiturates, and sedatives are the ones that might need to be held.

4. What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?

• A. The client's urine might turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.

5. A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client's tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next?

• A. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading
• B. Calling the respiratory therapist
• C. Calling the healthcare provider
• D. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

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