Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

2. Which of these clients should the LPN/LVN see first?

• A. a client with a newly placed NG tube who is complaining of pain around the face and a plugged nose
• B. a post-op prostatectomy client who complains of bladder spasms and blood in his foley bag
• C. a client in an arm cast who is 2 days post-op and reports feelings of numbness and tingling in her affected arm
• D. a client newly diagnosed with Hepatitis A who reports stomach pain and itchy skin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling hours or days after a cast is applied may indicate compartment syndrome and should be reported to a medical provider right away. This is a potential emergency situation that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options present expected or typical symptoms related to their diagnosis, which do not require immediate intervention. Complaints related to a newly placed NG tube such as pain around the face and a plugged nose may require assessment and intervention but are not as urgent as potential compartment syndrome. Bladder spasms and blood in the foley bag post-prostatectomy are common postoperative issues that can be addressed after the client in the arm cast with potential compartment syndrome is seen. Stomach pain and itchy skin in a client with Hepatitis A are common symptoms of the condition and do not indicate an emergency situation.

3. For which condition might a client's antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?

• A. diabetes mellitus
• B. diabetes insipidus
• C. hypothyroidism
• D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes insipidus. In this condition, the client's ADH level is increased. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to either inadequate secretion of ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In diabetes mellitus, ADH levels are typically normal or elevated in response to high blood sugar levels. Hypothyroidism is not directly related to ADH secretion. In hyperthyroidism, ADH levels are usually normal or decreased.

4. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

5. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

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