Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

2. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

3. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

4. Which of the following scenarios are considered violations of HIPAA laws?

• A. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed.
• B. Looking up the medical information of a friend without permission.
• C. Checking on your spouse's medical record because you are listed as her power of attorney.
• D. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scenarios B and C are considered violations of HIPAA laws. Looking up the medical information of a friend who is not in your care, even with permission, is a violation of HIPAA as the friend is not your patient. Checking on your spouse's medical record, even as a power of attorney, is a violation unless it is directly related to caregiving decisions. Discussing discharge plans with a client in a multi-bed recovery room with the curtain drawn around the client's bed is not a violation of HIPAA. This scenario is considered an 'incidental disclosure' and is not a breach of HIPAA privacy rules. Avoiding conversations about clients while in line in the cafeteria with a mutual caregiver of that client is actually a good practice as it maintains client confidentiality.

5. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

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