Nursing Elites

1. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

2. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

• A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
• B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
• C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
• D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

3. When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, a nursing assistant should be positioned on which side of the client?

• A. Stands behind the client
• B. Positions the free hand on the client's shoulder
• C. Stands on the right side of the client
• D. Grasps the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, the nursing assistant should stand on the affected side, which in this case is the client's right side. This position allows the assistant to provide proper support and assistance. Standing behind the client (Choice A) is incorrect as the assistant should be on the affected side. Positioning the free hand on the client's shoulder (Choice B) is a correct action as it helps in pulling the client toward them in case of a forward fall. Grasping the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back (Choice D) is also correct to provide support and stability during ambulation.

4. While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?

• A. Unplug the bed's power source.
• B. Remove the client from the bed immediately.
• C. Notify the biomedical department at once.
• D. Turn off the oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when sensing a tingling sensation while lowering the bed with a comatose client is to unplug the bed's power source. This should be the initial step as there may be a fault in the bed's grounding. Removing the client from the bed immediately is not safe until the electrical issue is resolved. Notifying the biomedical department is important but should come after ensuring the immediate safety of the client. Turning off the oxygen is not necessary unless there is a specific issue related to oxygen delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.

5. When administering NSAID adjunctive therapy to an elderly client with cancer, the nurse must monitor:

• A. BUN and creatinine.
• B. creatinine and calcium.
• C. Hgb and Hct.
• D. BUN and CFT.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an elderly client with cancer is receiving NSAID therapy, monitoring BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels is crucial. NSAIDs can cause renal toxicity, especially in the elderly. BUN and creatinine levels help assess renal function and detect early signs of renal impairment. Monitoring creatinine alone (Choice B) is not sufficient as BUN provides complementary information about renal function. Monitoring hemoglobin (Hgb) and hematocrit (Hct) (Choice C) is important for assessing anemia but not specific to NSAID therapy in the elderly. CFT (Choice D) is not a standard abbreviation in this context, and monitoring coagulation function is not directly related to NSAID therapy in this scenario.

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