Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?

• A. Nothing by mouth
• B. Nasogastric feedings
• C. Clear liquids
• D. Total parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.

2. A nurse in a medical-surgical unit overhears the nursing staff openly discussing a client and stating that the client is uncooperative and a real pain to care for. The nurse would most appropriately manage this issue by taking which action?

• A. Leaving articles about judgmental opinions in the nurses' report room
• B. Reporting the nurses' comments to administration
• C. Discouraging the judgmental comments
• D. Ignoring the comments made about the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nurses must discuss clients in a professional manner and avoid using judgmental language such as 'uncooperative' or 'difficult.' When such comments and language are discouraged, fewer comments will be made. Ignoring the comments is an inappropriate option because the concern will not be addressed. Leaving articles about judgmental opinions in the nurses' report room indirectly addresses the issue, but there is no guarantee that the staff will read them. Reporting the nurses' comments to administration does not directly address the issue. The best approach for the nurse is to discourage judgmental comments directly with the staff members. Since this action is not provided in the options, discouraging judgmental comments is the most appropriate way to manage this concern.

3. When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate, what should the nurse check first?

• A. Temperature
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Pulse
• D. Urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with terminal cancer receiving morphine sulfate via continuous intravenous infusion, the nurse's priority should be checking the client's respiratory status first. Morphine sulfate can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for close monitoring of breathing. While temperature, pulse, and urine output are all essential components of the assessment, ensuring adequate respiratory function takes precedence due to the potential risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine sulfate. Promptly assessing respiratory status enables early identification of any signs of respiratory distress or depression, allowing for immediate intervention if needed.

4. In what order should the LPN see the following clients? Use appropriate letters to match the correct order

• A. A, D, B, C
• B. C, B, D, A
• C. D, C, B, A
• D. B, C, A, D

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order for the LPN to see the clients is C, B, D, A. It is crucial to prioritize client care based on the urgency of their conditions. The 53-year-old client with lower leg swelling complaining of sudden onset headache and blurry vision (Client C) should be seen first as they are at the highest risk for serious healthcare complications. Next, the LPN should attend to the 23-year-old client with a left arm fracture after an MVA complaining of significant pain in his arm (Client B). Following that, the LPN can address the 47-year-old client requesting more information regarding her surgery scheduled in three hours (Client D). Lastly, the LPN should attend to the 72-year-old client with pneumonia asking to order her dinner (Client A). This order ensures that the most critical needs are met first, followed by the less urgent ones. Choice A is incorrect as it places the 72-year-old client before the 23-year-old client with a painful arm. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the 53-year-old client last. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the urgency of the clients' conditions appropriately.

5. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

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