Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?

• A. Nothing by mouth
• B. Nasogastric feedings
• C. Clear liquids
• D. Total parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.

2. An 85-year-old client is eligible for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Referral is contingent on meeting which of the following criteria?

• A. homebound status, requiring skilled therapy care
• B. immediate previous hospitalization for acute care
• C. age
• D. requirement of nursing and social work support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct criteria for Medicare-reimbursable home care services include the client being homebound and requiring a skilled service, such as physical therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy, nursing, or social work. Choice A is correct because it aligns with these requirements. Choice B is incorrect as immediate previous hospitalization is not a prerequisite for home care services. Choice C is incorrect as age alone does not determine eligibility for Medicare-reimbursable home care services. Choice D is incorrect as the requirement of nursing and social work support alone is not sufficient for Medicare-reimbursable home care services.

3. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

4. Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop?

• A. Impaired Physical Mobility
• B. Dysreflexia
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Impaired Dentition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop, impaired physical mobility is a relevant nursing diagnosis due to symptoms like a shuffling gait and rigidity that can impair movement. Dysreflexia is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease; it is more commonly seen in spinal cord injuries. Hypothermia is a condition of low body temperature and is not directly related to Parkinson's disease progression. Impaired Dentition involves issues with teeth and oral health, which are not specific to Parkinson's disease complications.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

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