Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on the night shift is making client rounds. When the nurse checks a client who is 97 years old and has successfully been treated for heart failure, he notes that the client is not breathing. If the client does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order, the nurse should take which action?

• A. Administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
• B. Call the client's health care provider
• C. Administer oxygen to the client and call the health care provider
• D. Contact the nursing supervisor for directions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is the appropriate action when a client is not breathing and does not have a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. CPR is considered an emergency treatment that can be provided without client consent in life-threatening situations. Calling the health care provider or nursing supervisor for directions, as well as administering oxygen without addressing the lack of breathing, would delay critical life-saving interventions. Therefore, administering CPR is the most urgent and necessary action to perform in this scenario.

2. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage.
• B. change the dressing.
• C. reinforce the dressing.
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.

3. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most common type of first-degree burn in small children is sunburn, often due to lack of protection and overexposure to the sun. This type of burn highlights the importance of educating parents about using sunscreens and ensuring children are adequately protected from the sun's harmful rays. Choices A, B, and C describe scenarios that can lead to burns but are not the most common type of first-degree burn in small children, making them incorrect.

4. In what order should the LPN see the following clients? Use appropriate letters to match the correct order

• A. A, D, B, C
• B. C, B, D, A
• C. D, C, B, A
• D. B, C, A, D

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order for the LPN to see the clients is C, B, D, A. It is crucial to prioritize client care based on the urgency of their conditions. The 53-year-old client with lower leg swelling complaining of sudden onset headache and blurry vision (Client C) should be seen first as they are at the highest risk for serious healthcare complications. Next, the LPN should attend to the 23-year-old client with a left arm fracture after an MVA complaining of significant pain in his arm (Client B). Following that, the LPN can address the 47-year-old client requesting more information regarding her surgery scheduled in three hours (Client D). Lastly, the LPN should attend to the 72-year-old client with pneumonia asking to order her dinner (Client A). This order ensures that the most critical needs are met first, followed by the less urgent ones. Choice A is incorrect as it places the 72-year-old client before the 23-year-old client with a painful arm. Choice B is incorrect as it prioritizes the 53-year-old client last. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the urgency of the clients' conditions appropriately.

5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

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