Nursing Elites

1. Which type of diet should the nurse provide to help a client who has major burns maintain a positive nitrogen balance?

• A. high protein
• B. high carbohydrate
• C. low carbohydrate
• D. low protein

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with major burns are in a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased protein catabolism. Therefore, a high-protein diet is essential to help them maintain a positive nitrogen balance and support wound healing. High carbohydrate diets do not directly contribute to achieving a positive nitrogen balance, making choice B incorrect. Similarly, low carbohydrate diets are not recommended for clients with major burns as carbohydrates provide essential energy needed for healing. Low protein diets are contraindicated for clients with major burns as they require higher protein intake to support tissue repair and prevent further breakdown.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client. Which of the following nursing actions should be taken first?

• A. Performing a physical assessment prior to administration
• B. Obtaining the most recent lab values regarding renal function
• C. Reviewing peaks and troughs for the past few days
• D. Ensuring the client is not allergic to the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before administering any medication, including IV Vancomycin, it is crucial to ensure that the client is not allergic to the medication. This is the most critical action to prevent any potential allergic reactions. While performing a physical assessment is important, it may not be as time-sensitive as checking for allergies. Obtaining lab values related to renal function is also significant with Vancomycin due to its potential nephrotoxicity, but ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies takes precedence. Reviewing peaks and troughs is important for monitoring drug levels, but it is a secondary step compared to checking for allergies prior to administration.

3. When removing a client's gown with an intravenous line, what should the nurse do?

• A. temporarily disconnect the intravenous tubing at a point close to the client and thread it through the gown
• B. cut the gown with scissors
• C. thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve, keeping the line intact
• D. temporarily disconnect the tubing from the intravenous container and thread it through the gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when removing a client's gown with an intravenous line is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve while keeping the line intact. This method ensures that the system remains sterile and reduces the risk of infection. Temporarily disconnecting the tubing at a point close to the client or from the container introduces the potential for contamination. Cutting the gown with scissors should only be done in emergencies as it is not a standard practice and can compromise the integrity of the intravenous line. Therefore, the most appropriate and safe method is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve.

4. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

5. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
• B. There is no known cure for the disease.
• C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

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