a nurse newly employed by a home health agency is told that the organizations decision making process is centralized the nurse determines that this me
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Test Bank

1. In a centralized decision-making process within an organization, where is the authority to make decisions vested?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a centralized decision-making process within an organization, the authority to make decisions is concentrated in a few individuals, such as the board of directors. This means that key decision-making power is held by a select group at the top of the organizational hierarchy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in a centralized structure, decision-making authority is not distributed among every employee, does not filter down to individual employees, and is not shared among all nursing employees, pharmacists, or hospital health care providers. Centralized decision-making implies a more top-down approach.

2. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate understanding of preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test is that the client cannot eat for 12 hours before the test. It is important to note that the client can drink an unrestricted amount of water. Limiting fluid intake is not necessary for this test. There is no need for the client to ingest a lipid solution as part of the preparation. Therefore, the other choices are incorrect.

3. A client with a spinal cord injury is preparing to return home from the rehabilitation unit. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates a need for further teaching regarding autonomic dysreflexia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: If the client develops signs or symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia, they need to be addressed immediately. If the family member is not able to relieve them, a healthcare provider needs to be notified immediately. The statement 'I should observe whether symptoms worsen' indicates a passive approach and does not address the urgency of the situation. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they involve active measures to address autonomic dysreflexia, such as raising the client to a sitting position, checking for a fecal impaction, and looking for a kink in the urinary catheter tubing.

4. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

5. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.

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