Nursing Elites

1. For which condition might a client's antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?

• A. diabetes mellitus
• B. diabetes insipidus
• C. hypothyroidism
• D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes insipidus. In this condition, the client's ADH level is increased. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to either inadequate secretion of ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In diabetes mellitus, ADH levels are typically normal or elevated in response to high blood sugar levels. Hypothyroidism is not directly related to ADH secretion. In hyperthyroidism, ADH levels are usually normal or decreased.

2. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

3. What is the role of an incident report in risk management?

• A. To provide liability protection.
• B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
• C. To discipline staff for errors.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incident reports play a crucial role in risk management by providing data for analysis to prevent future problems. They are not primarily for liability protection (A) or disciplining staff (C). Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate answer. Choosing option D is incorrect because incident reports do not solely exist for all the mentioned purposes, but primarily to provide data for analysis and preventive actions.

4. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

5. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic resonance imaging?

• A. "I should wear earplugs during the test."?
• B. "I should remove my metal jewelry before the test."?
• C. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my pacemaker."?
• D. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my artificial hip."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is, '"I should wear earplugs during the test,"?' as MRI scanners produce loud noises requiring ear protection. Metal objects, including jewelry, are not allowed inside the MRI room due to safety concerns related to the magnetic field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is wrong because metal objects, including jewelry, are not permitted in the MRI room. Choices C and D are incorrect as having a pacemaker or an artificial hip raises concerns due to the magnetic field in MRI, requiring special precautions or considerations. It is crucial for individuals with such implants to inform their healthcare provider to assess the risks and determine the appropriate course of action.

Similar Questions