Nursing Elites

1. For which condition might a client's antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level be increased?

• A. diabetes mellitus
• B. diabetes insipidus
• C. hypothyroidism
• D. hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes insipidus. In this condition, the client's ADH level is increased. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability of the kidneys to conserve water due to either inadequate secretion of ADH (central diabetes insipidus) or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. In diabetes mellitus, ADH levels are typically normal or elevated in response to high blood sugar levels. Hypothyroidism is not directly related to ADH secretion. In hyperthyroidism, ADH levels are usually normal or decreased.

2. What is a common side effect of Rifampin concerning the client's contact lenses?

• A. The client's urine might turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses might be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin might take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client's contact lenses might be stained orange. Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained, making this an important side effect for the client to be aware of. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no documented effect of Rifampin causing the client's urine to turn blue, the client remaining infectious for 48 hours, or the client's skin taking on a crimson glow.

3. Which of the following represents a normal serum potassium level?

• A. 1.5 mEq/L
• B. 3.0 mEq/L
• C. 4.0 mEq/L
• D. 6.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 4.0 mEq/L. Normal serum potassium levels typically range from 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Choice A (1.5 mEq/L) is below the normal range, Choice B (3.0 mEq/L) is also below the normal range, and Choice D (6.0 mEq/L) is above the normal range. Therefore, the only option within the normal range is Choice C (4.0 mEq/L).

4. An LPN is having a conflict with another nurse during her shift. She has tried to discuss the issues with the nurse with no resolution. What is the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed?

• A. Report the conflict to the director of nursing over the unit.
• B. Report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit.
• C. Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit.
• D. Discuss the conflict with the other nurse to attempt resolution of the issue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed is to report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit. Following the chain of command is crucial in a professional setting to address conflicts effectively. Reporting the issue to the charge nurse, who is the immediate supervisor, allows for a structured approach to resolving the conflict. Reporting directly to higher levels such as the director of nursing or nurse manager may bypass the appropriate hierarchy and could create unnecessary tension. Attempting to resolve the issue independently with the other nurse may not be effective if previous attempts have failed, making it essential to involve the immediate supervisor.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest percussion?

• A. Use the side of the hands
• B. Flatten the hands
• C. Spread the fingers of both hands
• D. Cup the hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The proper hand position for performing chest percussion is to cup the hands. Cupping the hands helps produce a vibration that aids in loosening respiratory secretions effectively. This technique is essential for therapeutic chest physiotherapy. Using the side of the hands, flattening the hands, or spreading the fingers of both hands do not generate the necessary vibration required for chest percussion. These hand positions are not considered proper techniques in this context and may not provide the desired therapeutic effect.

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