Nursing Elites

1. In a disaster triage situation, which of the following should the nurse be least concerned with regarding a client in crisis?

• A. ability to breathe
• B. pallor or cyanosis of the skin
• C. number of accompanying family members
• D. motor function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a disaster triage situation where quick decisions are crucial, the nurse's primary focus should be on factors directly related to the patient's immediate condition and survival. The ability to breathe, pallor or cyanosis of the skin, and motor function are critical indicators of a patient's health status and need for urgent intervention. In contrast, the number of accompanying family members, although important for emotional support, is not a priority when assessing and prioritizing care during a crisis. While emotional support is valuable, the focus in triage is on identifying and addressing the most critical and life-threatening issues first to maximize survival chances. Therefore, the nurse should be least concerned with the number of accompanying family members as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate medical needs in a crisis situation. Choices A, B, and D are all crucial factors to assess a client's health status and determine the urgency of intervention during a disaster triage. The ability to breathe indicates respiratory function, pallor or cyanosis of the skin reflect circulatory and oxygenation status, and motor function can hint at neurological impairment or injury, all of which are vital in determining the severity of the crisis and the immediate medical needs of the patient.

2. How is the information documented on incident reports used?

• A. to analyze risk categories
• B. to ensure compliance with regulations
• C. to identify staff's educational needs
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The information documented on incident reports is used for various purposes, including analyzing risk categories, ensuring compliance with regulations, and identifying staff's educational needs. Incident reports provide valuable data that can be utilized in risk management, quality monitoring, and improvement programs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'all of the above.' Choices A, B, and C are all correct as incident reports are used for analyzing risk categories, ensuring compliance with regulations, and identifying staff's educational needs, respectively. Thus, the most comprehensive answer is 'all of the above.'

3. Where do the vast majority of deaths resulting from unintentional poisoning occur?

• A. Infants
• B. Toddlers
• C. Teens
• D. Adults

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Toddlers.' Toddlers are at the highest risk of unintentional poisoning due to their natural curiosity, explorative behavior, and lack of awareness of potential dangers. Infants are typically closely monitored, teens are more aware of risks, and adults generally have better judgment and understanding of hazardous substances, making them less susceptible to unintentional poisoning. Therefore, toddlers, being inquisitive and unaware of risks, are the most vulnerable group in terms of unintentional poisoning incidents.

4. What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?

• A. reduced calories and reduced fat
• B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
• C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
• D. fluid restriction and reduced calories

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.

5. What can happen if a restraint is attached to a side rail or other movable part of the bed?

• A. Do nothing to the client.
• B. Injure the client if the rail or bed is moved.
• C. Help the client stay in the bed without falling out.
• D. Help the client with better posture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Attaching a restraint to a movable part of the bed can lead to client injury if that part of the bed is moved before releasing restraints. This could result in the client getting caught or trapped, possibly causing harm. Choices C and D are incorrect because attaching restraints to movable parts of the bed is not intended to help the client stay in bed or improve posture; rather, it poses a risk of injury. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential harm associated with using restraints on movable parts of the bed.

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