Nursing Elites

1. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

2. A new nurse employed at a community hospital is reading the organization's mission statement. The new nurse understands that this statement is written for which purpose?

• A. To outline what the organization plans to accomplish
• B. To identify the policies and procedures of the organization
• C. To describe the benefits available to employees
• D. To define the rules of the organization that the employees must follow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To outline what the organization plans to accomplish.' A mission statement expresses the purpose or reason for an organization's existence, outlining what it aims to achieve. It often includes statements of philosophy, purpose, and goals. This statement serves as a benchmark for evaluating the organization's performance. The mission statement is not meant to identify policies and procedures (Choice B) or describe employee benefits (Choice C). Choice B specifies the administrative guidelines and protocols of the organization, while Choice C pertains to the perks available to employees. Choice D is incorrect as the rules of the organization that employees must follow are usually detailed in employee handbooks or codes of conduct, not in the mission statement.

3. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

4. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. Increase maternal fluids.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Decrease maternal fluids.
• D. Turn the mother.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

5. Which of the following statements by an adult child of a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

• A. "I should provide a regular schedule for toileting."?
• B. "I should talk to my father less because he can't communicate."?
• C. "I should give my father oral care after every meal and bedtime."?
• D. "I should assist my father with eating and drinking."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In late-stage Alzheimer's disease, although verbal communication may be challenging or limited, it is essential to maintain communication through talking and non-verbal cues like touching. Limiting communication can lead to feelings of isolation and worsen the emotional well-being of the individual. Choices A, C, and D reflect appropriate care strategies by addressing toileting needs, oral care, and assistance with eating and drinking, which are crucial aspects of caregiving for a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease.

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