which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord is a result of damage to one half of the spinal cord
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

3. How often should physical restraints be released?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

4. Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is high HDL cholesterol. High HDL cholesterol levels are associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease because HDL helps remove LDL cholesterol from the arteries, reducing plaque buildup. Low HDL cholesterol (choice B) is actually associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Low total cholesterol (choice C) or low triglycerides (choice D) are not indicators of a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease; in fact, extremely low total cholesterol levels may indicate other health issues.

5. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

Similar Questions

A health care provider repeatedly asks a nurse to write his verbal prescriptions in his clients' charts after he makes his rounds. The nurse is uncomfortable with writing the prescriptions and explains this to the health care provider, but the health care provider tells the nurse that she will be reported if she does not write the prescriptions. How should the nurse manage this conflict?
Several passengers aboard an airliner suddenly become weak and suffer breathing difficulty. The diagnosis is likely to be
A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
A nurse discovers that another nurse has administered an enema to a client even though the client told the nurse that he did not want one. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses