which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord is a result of damage to one half of the spinal cord
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. A Hispanic client brings her father to the clinic because he is becoming more forgetful. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The woman tells the nurse that she wants to try ginkgo biloba for her father before using prescription medications. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate response is to acknowledge the client's wishes and communicate them to the physician for consideration. It is important to be culturally sensitive and respect the client's preferences. Ginkgo biloba has shown some benefits in treating dementia, so it is essential to involve the healthcare provider in the decision-making process. Choices A, B, and C are dismissive and fail to consider the client's perspective and cultural beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to engage in open communication and collaboration with clients to provide patient-centered care.

3. During shift change, a nurse is giving report to the oncoming LPN. Which of these is an inappropriate way to give shift report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.' This choice is inappropriate because shift report should be given at the bedside, in SBAR format, and in an objective way. It is important to maintain professionalism and focus on the client's condition and care needs, rather than personal opinions or subjective comments. Reporting in the hallway may compromise patient privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate ways of giving shift report by focusing on relevant information, using SBAR format, and discussing client concerns after reviewing the chart, which promotes effective communication and continuity of care.

4. The healthcare provider is using Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control and knows that these methods can be expected to do all the following except:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control aim to provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control, helping the client to control symptoms, and encouraging the client to actively participate in their care. However, these methods are not intended to completely relieve all pain. These interventions focus on perception and thought, aiming to influence how one interprets events and bodily sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is that they cannot completely relieve all pain, as pain relief is often a multifaceted approach that may require additional interventions beyond Cognitive-Behavioral methods. Choices B, C, and D are correct as Cognitive-Behavioral methods are designed to empower the individual in managing their pain and improving their overall well-being.

5. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.

Similar Questions

While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?
When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?
A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?
Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:
An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses