Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?

• A. Do nothing, as it is not impacting client care.
• B. Discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies.
• C. Tell the charge nurse to stop ordering these dressings.
• D. Remove the colloid dressings from the shelf so that the nurse will find other supplies to use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.

3. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Before administering the medication, the nurse must first take which action?

• A. Check the client's apical pulse
• B. Check when the last feeding was given
• C. Check the placement of the tube
• D. Check when the last medications were given

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before administering medications through an NG tube, the nurse must first check the placement of the tube to prevent aspiration. This is done by aspirating gastric contents and measuring the pH. Checking the client's apical pulse is unrelated to NG tube medication administration. Checking when the last feeding was given is important but not a priority before administering medications. Checking when the last medications were given is also not directly related to ensuring the safe administration of medications through an NG tube. Ensuring the correct placement of the tube is crucial to prevent complications such as pulmonary aspiration.

5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

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