Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. An LPN is having a conflict with another nurse during her shift. She has tried to discuss the issues with the nurse with no resolution. What is the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed?

• A. Report the conflict to the director of nursing over the unit.
• B. Report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit.
• C. Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit.
• D. Discuss the conflict with the other nurse to attempt resolution of the issue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed is to report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit. Following the chain of command is crucial in a professional setting to address conflicts effectively. Reporting the issue to the charge nurse, who is the immediate supervisor, allows for a structured approach to resolving the conflict. Reporting directly to higher levels such as the director of nursing or nurse manager may bypass the appropriate hierarchy and could create unnecessary tension. Attempting to resolve the issue independently with the other nurse may not be effective if previous attempts have failed, making it essential to involve the immediate supervisor.

3. Which of the following activities is not part of client advocacy?

• A. involving the client in treatment and decision-making
• B. standing up for what is right for the client
• C. sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information
• D. encouraging the client to advocate for themselves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sharing your personal opinions to help provide additional information.' Client advocacy involves supporting the client's autonomy and choices. It is essential for the nurse to involve the client in treatment and decision-making (Choice A) to ensure their preferences are considered. Standing up for what is right for the client (Choice B) is also a crucial aspect of advocacy, ensuring their rights and well-being are protected. Encouraging the client to advocate for themselves (Choice D) empowers the client to express their needs. However, sharing personal opinions (Choice C) may influence the client's decision-making process and is not a recommended practice in client advocacy, as it can compromise the client's autonomy.

4. A client scheduled for surgery tells the nurse that he signed an informed consent for the surgical procedure but was never told about the risks of the surgery. The nurse serves as the client's advocate by undertaking which action?

• A. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal
• B. Noting in the client's record that the client was not told about the risks of the surgery
• C. Writing a note on the front of the client's record so that the surgeon will see it when the client arrives in the operating room
• D. Informing the surgeon verbally about the lack of information provided to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse serves as a client advocate by protecting the client's right to be informed and to participate in decisions regarding care. In this scenario, the nurse should document in the client's record that the client was not informed about the risks of the surgery. This action ensures that the issue is officially noted and can be addressed by the healthcare team. Reassuring the client that the risks are minimal is incorrect because it dismisses the client's concerns and does not address the lack of information provided. Writing a note on the client's chart to inform the surgeon is not as effective as ensuring that the issue is officially documented in the client's record, where it can be reviewed and addressed by the healthcare team. Informing the surgeon verbally is not as reliable as documenting the concern in the client's record, which provides a formal and lasting record for review and follow-up.

5. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of client restraint?

• A. Restraints are a nursing measure used to maintain client control.
• B. Restraints are an emergency intervention taken as a last resort to protect a client from imminent danger.
• C. Restraints are a therapeutic measure designed to positively reinforce client behavior.
• D. Restraints are an emergency measure that can only be taken by a nurse under the direct supervision of a physician.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Restraints are used as an emergency intervention when all other options to protect a client from imminent danger have been exhausted. Restraints should only be used as a last resort to ensure the safety of the client and others. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because restraints are not used to maintain control, reinforce behavior, or are exclusively taken under direct physician supervision. It is crucial to remember that restraint use should always be based on careful assessment, documentation, and adherence to legal and ethical guidelines.

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