Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following syndromes associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord?

• A. Brown-S�quard syndrome
• B. posterior cord syndrome
• C. central cord syndrome
• D. cauda equina syndrome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Brown-S�quard syndrome is indeed associated with incomplete lesions of the spinal cord, and it specifically results from damage to one-half of the spinal cord. This syndrome manifests as ipsilateral motor paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome mainly involves the loss of proprioception and vibratory sense, while sparing motor function and pain sensation. Central cord syndrome typically presents with more weakness in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities due to central spinal cord damage. Cauda equina syndrome affects the nerve roots at the level of the conus medullaris, leading to symptoms like lower extremity weakness, numbness, and bowel/bladder dysfunction.

2. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

• A. 2 liters/minute
• B. 4 liters/minute
• C. 6 liters/minute
• D. 8 liters/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.

3. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:

• A. Good Samaritan laws.
• B. HIPAA.
• C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
• D. OBRA.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.

4. The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by performing all of the following activities except:

• A. encouraging political involvement by nurses with their legislators.
• B. acting as a first-aid provider for a children's athletic team.
• C. precepting newly licensed nurses in the work situation.
• D. encouraging as many persons to become nurses as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by encouraging appropriate persons to become nurses, by being a positive role model and mentor, and by communicating the needs of nurses in the most professional manner possible to those making the laws. Encouraging as many persons as possible to become nurses may not align with the advocacy role, as the focus should be on quality rather than quantity. Choices A, B, and C are activities that align with being an advocate for the nursing profession by promoting political involvement, providing first aid, and precepting newly licensed nurses, respectively.

5. A client being treated for sickle cell disease has an order for pain medication. Morphine was ordered, but the nurse is having difficulty deciphering the dose. The nurse should ____.

• A. ask the attending physician to clarify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• B. call the charge nurse to inform the attending physician and verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• C. call the attending physician to verbally verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• D. refrain from administering the medication until the charge nurse can assist in determining the correct dosage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a nurse encounters difficulties in deciphering an order, the appropriate action is to contact the attending physician directly to clarify and verify the medication, dose, route, and frequency. It is crucial for the nurse to have a clear understanding of the order before administering any medication to ensure patient safety and proper treatment. Option A is incorrect as it suggests asking the attending physician to clarify without specifying the urgency of the situation. Option B involves an unnecessary additional step by first contacting the charge nurse before reaching out to the attending physician, potentially delaying the clarification process. Option D is incorrect as it advises refraining from administering the medication, which may not be necessary if the correct dosage can be promptly verified by contacting the attending physician.

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