Nursing Elites

1. Which is an appropriate outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Body Image Disturbance for a client with anorexia nervosa?

• A. The client verbalizes knowledge of a maintenance diet.
• B. The client demonstrates assertiveness with family.
• C. The client verbalizes her body size accurately.
• D. The client demonstrates control of obsessive behaviors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.

2. The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by performing all of the following activities except:

• A. encouraging political involvement by nurses with their legislators.
• B. acting as a first-aid provider for a children's athletic team.
• C. precepting newly licensed nurses in the work situation.
• D. encouraging as many persons to become nurses as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by encouraging appropriate persons to become nurses, by being a positive role model and mentor, and by communicating the needs of nurses in the most professional manner possible to those making the laws. Encouraging as many persons as possible to become nurses may not align with the advocacy role, as the focus should be on quality rather than quantity. Choices A, B, and C are activities that align with being an advocate for the nursing profession by promoting political involvement, providing first aid, and precepting newly licensed nurses, respectively.

3. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

4. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

5. In an obstetrical emergency, which of the following actions should the nurse perform first after the baby delivers?

• A. Place extra padding under the mother to absorb blood from the delivery.
• B. Cut the umbilical cord using sterile scissors.
• C. Suction the baby's mouth and nose.
• D. Wrap the baby in a clean blanket to preserve warmth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an obstetrical emergency, the immediate priority after the baby delivers is to clear the baby's airway by suctioning the mouth and nose to ensure effective breathing. This action helps prevent potential complications like meconium aspiration. Cutting the umbilical cord, wrapping the baby in a blanket, or placing extra padding under the mother can follow once the baby's airway is clear. Therefore, suctioning the baby's mouth and nose is the most critical and time-sensitive intervention in this scenario. Placing extra padding under the mother is not the immediate priority as ensuring the baby's airway is clear. Cutting the umbilical cord and wrapping the baby in a clean blanket are important but can wait until after ensuring the baby's breathing is not compromised.

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