Nursing Elites

1. During shift change, a nurse is giving report to the oncoming LPN. Which of these is an inappropriate way to give shift report?

• A. The nurse gives report to the oncoming LPN, checking a wound vac and dressing together.
• B. The nurse reports in SBAR format, noting that the client was noncompliant with their diet during the shift.
• C. The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.
• D. The nurse reports at bedside with the oncoming LPN and discusses the client's concerns after the chart has been reviewed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.' This choice is inappropriate because shift report should be given at the bedside, in SBAR format, and in an objective way. It is important to maintain professionalism and focus on the client's condition and care needs, rather than personal opinions or subjective comments. Reporting in the hallway may compromise patient privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate ways of giving shift report by focusing on relevant information, using SBAR format, and discussing client concerns after reviewing the chart, which promotes effective communication and continuity of care.

2. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

3. Which cultural group has the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

• A. Asians
• B. Caucasians
• C. Hispanics
• D. African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Caucasians. Studies have shown that Caucasians have the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) compared to other cultural groups. While IBD can affect individuals from various backgrounds, the prevalence is notably higher in Caucasians. Asians, Hispanics, and African Americans have a lower incidence of IBD compared to Caucasians, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?

• A. The client's urine may turn blue.
• B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
• C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
• D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.

5. Upon admission, the client expresses a desire for an extra oxygen tank in their room due to a previous breathing issue. What is the most appropriate response?

• A. "I will make sure there is always an extra oxygen tank in your room."?
• B. "I will ask the previous nurse if the extra tank was needed."?
• C. "I will need to check if your insurance benefits would cover an additional oxygen tank."?
• D. "The first priority is ensuring there are enough oxygen tanks for everyone who needs them. I am not sure we will be able to provide an extra on standby."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate response in this situation is to prioritize the availability of oxygen tanks for all patients in need. While it is understandable that the client may desire an extra tank for reassurance, the healthcare facility must ensure equitable distribution based on clinical need. Option A is incorrect because promising an always available extra tank may not be feasible and can set unrealistic expectations. Option B is not the best response as it focuses on past actions rather than addressing the current situation. Option C is not the most appropriate response at this time as the client's immediate need for an extra oxygen tank is the primary concern. Therefore, the best response is to emphasize the importance of equitable distribution of resources while acknowledging the client's request for an extra tank.

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