Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift is reviewing the records of the assigned clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m.
• B. A client scheduled for contrast computed tomography (CT) at noon.
• C. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m.
• D. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m. This client needs immediate assessment before the procedure, which may take up to 5 hours. The nurse should ensure the client is physically and emotionally prepared, check for fluid overload by assessing weight and lung sounds, review vital signs, and laboratory test results. The other clients described in the options have needs that are not as urgent. The client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m. may require information reinforcement and increased fluid intake before the procedure. The client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m. may need pain medication administered 30 minutes prior to the therapy. The client scheduled for a contrast CT at noon may need procedure information reinforcement and a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.

2. An LPN is having a conflict with another nurse during her shift. She has tried to discuss the issues with the nurse with no resolution. What is the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed?

• A. Report the conflict to the director of nursing over the unit.
• B. Report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit.
• C. Report the conflict to the nurse manager of the unit.
• D. Discuss the conflict with the other nurse to attempt resolution of the issue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate way for the LPN to proceed is to report the conflict to the assigned charge nurse of the unit. Following the chain of command is crucial in a professional setting to address conflicts effectively. Reporting the issue to the charge nurse, who is the immediate supervisor, allows for a structured approach to resolving the conflict. Reporting directly to higher levels such as the director of nursing or nurse manager may bypass the appropriate hierarchy and could create unnecessary tension. Attempting to resolve the issue independently with the other nurse may not be effective if previous attempts have failed, making it essential to involve the immediate supervisor.

3. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:

• A. a procedure for changing IV tubing.
• B. a policy for staffing.
• C. the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
• D. a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.

4. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

• A. Bell's palsy
• B. Guillain-Barr� syndrome
• C. Trigeminal neuralgia
• D. Tetanus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

5. A client has experienced a CVA with right hemiparesis and is ready for discharge from the hospital to a long-term care facility for rehab. To provide optimal continuity of care, the nurse should do all of the following except:

• A. document the current functional status
• B. have the physician fax a report to the receiving facility
• C. copy appropriate parts of the medical record for transport to the receiving facility
• D. phone a report to the facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure optimal continuity of care for a client transitioning to a long-term care facility for rehab after a CVA, the nurse plays a crucial role in communication. Documenting the current functional status is essential for the receiving facility to plan appropriate care. Copying relevant parts of the medical record for transport provides important background information. Phoning a report directly to the facility is a direct and effective way to communicate the client's condition and care plan. However, having the physician fax a report to the receiving facility introduces an extra step that may delay essential information transfer and increase the risk of miscommunication. Therefore, it is not the optimal choice for ensuring seamless continuity of care.

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