Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy
• B. A client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask
• C. A client preparing for discharge after surgery
• D. A client requiring a tube feeding through a gastrostomy tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a tracheostomy who is receiving humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy mask. Airway management is always the priority in nursing care. Assessing this client first ensures that their airway is clear and oxygenation is adequate. Clients with compromised airways need immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress or failure. The other clients do not have immediate airway concerns and represent lower priorities in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client with the tracheostomy and oxygen therapy to maintain airway patency and adequate oxygenation.

2. A nurse is watching as a new nurse employee administers an intramuscular (IM) injection in a client's deltoid muscle. The nurse determines that the new employee is performing the procedure correctly if the new employee uses which technique?

• A. Administers the injection 2 inches below the acromion process
• B. Positions the client with the deltoid muscle exposed
• C. Administers the injection in the thigh
• D. Places the client in the Sims position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering an intramuscular injection in the deltoid muscle, the correct technique involves administering the injection 2 inches below the acromion process, which is the bony structure on top of the shoulder blade. This location ensures safe and effective administration. Administering the injection in the thigh (vastus lateralis or rectus femoris muscle) is not appropriate for a deltoid injection as the deltoid muscle is located in the upper arm. The Sims position is not the correct position for a deltoid muscle injection. While positioning the client with the deltoid muscle exposed allows for proper access and visualization, the critical aspect for a correct deltoid injection is the accurate injection site, 2 inches below the acromion process.

3. A nurse manager asks a nurse to work overtime because of a short-staffing problem. The nurse has made plans to do Christmas shopping after work and does not want to work overtime. What is the most assertive response by the nurse to her nurse manager?

• A. "I'm not working overtime today."
• B. "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime."
• C. "You know how I hate to work overtime."
• D. "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most assertive response in dealing with this conflict is the one that is direct and conveys a clear message in a positive manner. The nurse should assertively communicate her unavailability for overtime without being confrontational. Option A, "I'm not working overtime today," is too blunt and may come across as rude. Option C, "You know how I hate to work overtime," is not assertive but rather passive-aggressive. Option D, "I will if you need me, but I am not happy about this," is a passive-aggressive response as it implies compliance while expressing discontent. Option B, "I have plans after work and will not be able to work overtime," is the most appropriate response as it clearly states the nurse's unavailability without unnecessary aggression.

4. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

5. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate understanding of preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test?

• A. "I cannot eat or drink after midnight."?
• B. "I cannot eat for 12 hours before the test."?
• C. "I need to limit my fluid intake."?
• D. "I need to ingest a lipid solution."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding preparation for a lipoprotein fractionation test is that the client cannot eat for 12 hours before the test. It is important to note that the client can drink an unrestricted amount of water. Limiting fluid intake is not necessary for this test. There is no need for the client to ingest a lipid solution as part of the preparation. Therefore, the other choices are incorrect.

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