Nursing Elites

1. Major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care include:

• A. demonstrating respect and compassion, and applying knowledge and skills in care of the family and the client.
• B. assessing and intervening to support total management of the family and client.
• C. setting goals, expectations, and dynamic changes to care for the client.
• D. keeping all sad news away from the family and client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In providing end-of-life care, nurses must possess essential competencies. Demonstrating respect and compassion, along with applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client, are crucial competencies. These skills help create a supportive and empathetic environment for individuals facing end-of-life situations. Choice B is incorrect because while assessing and intervening are important, they do not encompass the core competencies required for end-of-life care. Choice C is also incorrect; although setting goals and expectations is valuable, the primary focus should be on providing compassionate care. Choice D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

2. A syringe pump is a type of electronic infusion pump used to infuse fluids or medications directly from a syringe. This device is commonly used for:

• A. solutions administered in obstetrics.
• B. dilute antibiotics.
• C. large volumes of IV solutions.
• D. the neonatal and pediatric populations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the neonatal and pediatric populations.' Syringe pumps are commonly used in neonatal and pediatric populations because they allow for precise infusion of small volumes of medications or fluids at controlled rates. This is crucial for ensuring safety and accuracy in these delicate populations. Choice A is incorrect because syringe pumps are not limited to obstetrics; they are used in various healthcare settings. Choices B and C are incorrect because syringe pumps are not typically used for dilute antibiotics or large volumes of IV solutions. Instead, they are preferred for delivering small volumes accurately, making them ideal for neonatal and pediatric care.

3. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

4. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

5. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

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