Nursing Elites

1. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

2. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

3. After receiving a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After receiving a recent tattoo, screening for hepatitis is crucial due to the risk of blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed during the tattooing process. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen and is not directly related to receiving a tattoo. Herpes and syphilis are infections spread through direct contact, such as sexual contact, and are not typically associated with tattooing.

4. The LPN is caring for a client with an NG tube, and the RN administers evening medications through the NG tube. The client asks if he can lie down when the nurse leaves the room. What is the most appropriate response?

• A. You can lie down in 1 hour.
• B. You can lie down in 30 minutes if your NG residual is below 50 mL.
• C. You can lie down in about 30 minutes.
• D. Yes, feel free to lie down.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After administering medication through an NG tube, the client should remain upright for 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption of the medications. Therefore, the most appropriate response is to advise the client to lie down in 1 hour. Choice B is incorrect because waiting only 30 minutes may not provide sufficient time for the medications to be fully absorbed, as the recommended time is 30 minutes. Choice C is misleading as it incorrectly suggests that lying down in about 30 minutes is acceptable, which could compromise medication effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as it does not provide accurate information regarding the appropriate timing for lying down after NG tube medication administration, potentially leading to decreased medication absorption.

5. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. increase maternal fluids
• B. administer oxygen
• C. decrease maternal fluids
• D. turn the mother

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal distress is indicated, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation and blood flow to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve blood flow and oxygen delivery, administering oxygen increases oxygenation levels, and turning the mother can help optimize fetal oxygenation. Decreasing maternal fluids would negatively impact blood volume and can worsen fetal distress, making it the exception among the listed interventions. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids should not be performed when fetal distress is present.

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