Nursing Elites

1. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

2. What should a client room environment include?

• A. a made bed, fresh water, thermostat regulation, and clean floors in all occupied client areas.
• B. a made bed, comfort and safety, a clutter-free area, hygiene articles nearby.
• C. accident prevention, comfort, a room (including furniture) that has been cleaned with chloroseptic wash, a bed that is made every other day.
• D. odor control (by spraying the room with deodorizers), closet storage of all client objects, a clean room. (Gloves should be worn when cleaning.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client room environment should include a made bed to provide a sense of neatness and comfort, ensuring the client's safety at all times. It is important to maintain a clutter-free area to prevent accidents and promote a relaxing environment. Having hygiene articles nearby allows the client easy access to personal care items. Choice A is incorrect because while fresh water and thermostat regulation are important, they are not essential components of a client room environment. Choice C is incorrect as it emphasizes more on cleaning procedures rather than creating a comfortable and safe environment for the client. Choice D is incorrect as it emphasizes odor control and storage rather than the client's comfort and safety.

3. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

• A. increase maternal fluids
• B. administer oxygen
• C. decrease maternal fluids
• D. turn the mother

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal distress is indicated, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation and blood flow to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve blood flow and oxygen delivery, administering oxygen increases oxygenation levels, and turning the mother can help optimize fetal oxygenation. Decreasing maternal fluids would negatively impact blood volume and can worsen fetal distress, making it the exception among the listed interventions. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids should not be performed when fetal distress is present.

4. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

5. Which of the following neurological disorders is characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs?

• A. epilepsy
• B. Parkinson's
• C. multiple sclerosis
• D. Huntington's chorea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's chorea is a neurological disorder characterized by writhing, twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. Epilepsy is characterized by seizures, not writhing, twisting movements. Parkinson's disease presents with tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, not writhing, twisting movements. Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system but does not typically involve writhing, twisting movements. Therefore, the correct answer is Huntington's chorea as it specifically manifests with these characteristic movements.

Similar Questions