Nursing Elites

1. A client has signed the informed consent for mastectomy of the left breast. On the morning of the surgical procedure, the client asks the nurse several questions about the procedure that make it obvious that she does not have an adequate comprehension of the procedure. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Telling the client that she needed to ask these questions before signing the informed consent for surgery
• B. Contacting the surgeon and requesting that she visit the client to answer her questions
• C. Informing the client that she has the right to cancel the surgical procedure if she wishes
• D. Telling the client that it is her surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Informed consent is the authorization by a client or a client's legal representative to do something to the client. The surgeon is primarily responsible for explaining the surgical procedure and obtaining informed consent. If the client asks questions that alert the nurse to an inadequacy of comprehension on the client's part, the nurse has the obligation to contact the surgeon. Choice A is incorrect as the client should be allowed to ask questions even after signing the consent for surgery. Choice C is not the most appropriate response, as the primary concern is to address the client's lack of comprehension. Choice D is inaccurate, as while it is the surgeon's responsibility to explain the procedure, in this scenario, the nurse should take immediate action to ensure the client's understanding. Requesting the surgeon to visit and answer the client's questions is the most appropriate response in this situation, as it directly addresses the client's concerns and ensures proper informed consent is obtained.

2. People-related supervisory tasks include all of the following except:

• A. coaching
• B. encouraging
• C. target setting
• D. rewarding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: People-related supervisory tasks involve direct interaction with individuals performing the work. Coaching, encouraging, rewarding, evaluating, and facilitating are all part of these tasks as they focus on supporting and motivating employees. Target setting, on the other hand, is a task-centered responsibility that involves projecting goals or objectives to be accomplished. It focuses more on setting objectives and goals rather than directly interacting with individuals, making it the exception among the given choices.

3. The client asks the nurse not to tell anyone outside of the care team about his positive HIV diagnosis. What response is most appropriate?

• A. "I have to inform all clients on the unit of your diagnosis as it is transmissible."?
• B. "I will not communicate your diagnosis to anyone without your permission."?
• C. "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."?
• D. "You should not be concerned with who I share your diagnosis with."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: "Because this is a communicable disease, it may need to be reported to the CDC."? It is important to uphold patient confidentiality, but in the case of certain communicable diseases like HIV, there are legal requirements for mandatory reporting to public health authorities such as the CDC. Option A is incorrect because it violates patient confidentiality and does not consider legal obligations. Option B, while respecting the client's wishes, may not align with the legal requirement for reporting certain communicable diseases. Option D is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns and rights regarding their health information.

4. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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