NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Shock
- B. Nephrotoxic drugs
- C. Enlarged prostate
- D. Diabetes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.
2. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
- A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
- B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
- C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
- D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
3. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?
- A. temperature of 102�F and a productive cough
- B. arterial blood gases (ABGs) with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
- C. trachea deviating to the right
- D. barrel-chested appearance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.
4. Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?
- A. Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.
- B. Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.
- C. Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.
- D. Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress. This statement is incorrect because iron should not be mixed with antacids as it can significantly reduce the absorption of iron. Choice B is a good recommendation as taking iron with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal distress. Choice C is also correct as liquid forms of iron should be taken with a straw to prevent the discoloration of tooth enamel. Choice D is incorrect as iron preparations can be taken with juice or water, but not with milk, as calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption.
5. A high school nurse observes a 14-year-old female rubbing her scalp excessively in the gym. What is the most appropriate course of action for the nurse?
- A. Request the female’s parents for a private evaluation of her scalp
- B. Contact the female’s parents regarding the observations
- C. Observe the hairline and scalp for possible signs of lice
- D. Inform the student’s physician about the situation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate course of action for the nurse is to observe the hairline and scalp for possible signs of lice. The student's behavior of excessively rubbing her scalp raises concerns about a potential infestation, making it necessary to look for signs firsthand. Contacting the parents or the physician should be considered after observing for signs of lice to provide more information and take appropriate action. Requesting a private evaluation from the parents may not be required initially, as lice infestation is a common concern among children and observing for signs is the immediate step to address the situation.
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