NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. What is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
- A. Shock
- B. Nephrotoxic drugs
- C. Enlarged prostate
- D. Diabetes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Shock.' Acute renal failure is commonly caused by inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, which can occur in cases of shock. This leads to decreased kidney function and potential kidney damage. While nephrotoxic drugs can also cause acute renal failure, shock is the primary and most common cause. An enlarged prostate may lead to obstructive uropathy but is not the most prevalent cause of acute renal failure. Diabetes is typically associated with chronic kidney disease rather than acute renal failure.
2. Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?
- A. presence of breathing and pulse rate
- B. breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing
- C. presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing
- D. patient position and adequacy of breathing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing. It is crucial not only to confirm that the client is breathing but also to ensure that the breathing is adequate for proper oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while pulse rate, breathing pattern, and patient position are relevant aspects to consider, the most critical observations in assessing a client's breathing are the presence and adequacy of breathing.
3. If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?
- A. Conveying calmness through one-on-one interaction
- B. Recognizing and managing your own feelings to prevent escalation of the patient's anxiety level
- C. Encouraging client participation in group therapy
- D. Listening and identifying causes of their behavior
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is acutely psychotic, they may not be able to effectively participate in group therapy due to their altered mental state. Group settings can be overwhelming and may exacerbate the patient's symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are appropriate interventions. Choice A is correct as providing calmness through one-on-one interaction can be beneficial in establishing trust and reducing anxiety. Choice B is also important as recognizing and managing the nurse's feelings can prevent further escalation of the patient's symptoms. Choice D is relevant as listening and identifying causes of the patient's behavior can aid in understanding and providing appropriate care tailored to the patient's needs.
4. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?
- A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
- B. Administer the PRN sedative
- C. Call the physician immediately
- D. Administer the PRN pain medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.
5. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?
- A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
- B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
- C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
- D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.
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