Nursing Elites

1. A client is going to have an endoscopy performed. Which of the following is not a probable reason for an endoscopy procedure?

• A. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet
• B. Pain felt during a bowel movement
• C. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant
• D. Right shoulder pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pain felt during a bowel movement.' Endoscopy is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Pain during a bowel movement would suggest an issue in the lower gastrointestinal tract, which is typically examined with a colonoscopy. Choices A, C, and D are not probable reasons for an endoscopy procedure as they relate to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract or are not specific to gastrointestinal issues. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet could indicate a risk of aspiration pneumonia related to swallowing difficulties, which can be assessed through an endoscopy. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant may be related to conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers that can be investigated using an endoscopy. Right shoulder pain can be a referred pain from conditions like gallbladder disease that can also be evaluated with an endoscopy.

2. A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?

• A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
• C. Implement reverse isolation.
• D. Avoid IM injections.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.

3. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
• B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
• C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
• D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.

4. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

5. How can a diet high in fiber content benefit an individual?

• A. aid in rapid weight loss.
• B. reduce diabetic ketoacidosis.
• C. lower cholesterol.
• D. reduce the requirement for folate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A diet high in fiber content can help lower cholesterol levels. Fiber-rich foods such as grains, apples, potatoes, and beans are known to aid in reducing cholesterol by binding to cholesterol in the digestive system and preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. Choice A is incorrect as the question does not specify losing weight rapidly but rather focuses on the benefits of a high-fiber diet, which includes aiding in weight management through promoting satiety and regulating digestion. Choice B is incorrect because while fiber helps manage blood sugar levels, it is not directly related to reducing diabetic ketoacidosis, a serious complication of diabetes. Choice D is incorrect as a high-fiber diet does not reduce the need for folate; however, it can aid in the absorption of folate and other essential nutrients.

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