Nursing Elites

1. A client is going to have an endoscopy performed. Which of the following is not a probable reason for an endoscopy procedure?

• A. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet
• B. Pain felt during a bowel movement
• C. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant
• D. Right shoulder pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pain felt during a bowel movement.' Endoscopy is used to examine the upper gastrointestinal tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Pain during a bowel movement would suggest an issue in the lower gastrointestinal tract, which is typically examined with a colonoscopy. Choices A, C, and D are not probable reasons for an endoscopy procedure as they relate to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract or are not specific to gastrointestinal issues. Aspiration noted on a honey-thick diet could indicate a risk of aspiration pneumonia related to swallowing difficulties, which can be assessed through an endoscopy. Pain felt in the left upper quadrant may be related to conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers that can be investigated using an endoscopy. Right shoulder pain can be a referred pain from conditions like gallbladder disease that can also be evaluated with an endoscopy.

2. Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of a client with lung cancer?

• A. exertional dyspnea
• B. persistent changing cough
• C. air hunger; dyspnea
• D. cough with night sweats

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most characteristic symptom of lung cancer is a persistent changing cough. This cough may worsen over time and may produce blood-tinged sputum. Exertional dyspnea (Choice A) is more common in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) due to airway obstruction. Air hunger and dyspnea (Choice C) are more typical of conditions like asthma. Cough with night sweats (Choice D) is commonly associated with tuberculosis rather than lung cancer.

3. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer PRN anxiolytic
• B. Administer Antibiotics
• C. Reassure the client that everything is okay and offer food and beverage
• D. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.

4. During a screening on a patient with a recent cast on the left lower extremity, which of the following statements should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. The patient reports, "I didn't keep my extremity elevated as the doctor asked me to."?
• B. The patient reports, "I have been having pain in my left calf."?
• C. The patient reports, "My left leg has really been itching."?
• D. The patient reports, "The arthritis in my wrists is flaring up when I put weight on my crutches."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pain in the left calf could indicate a potential neurovascular complication related to the casted extremity. It could suggest issues such as compartment syndrome or impaired circulation. Option A is not as concerning since not elevating the extremity may lead to swelling but is not an immediate concern. Option C indicates itching, which is common with casts and not as concerning as potential neurovascular issues. Option D, regarding arthritis in the wrists, is unrelated to the lower extremity issue being screened for.

5. Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?

• A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
• B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
• C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
• D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.

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