NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?
- A. 4 years old
- B. 5 years old
- C. 6 years old
- D. 7 years old
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.
2. Which factor in a client’s health history increases their risk for cancer?
- A. Family history and environment
- B. Alcohol and smoking
- C. Alcohol consumption and smoking
- D. Proximity to an electric plant and water source
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alcohol and smoking.' Both alcohol consumption and smoking are well-known risk factors for various types of cancer. They have a synergistic effect, meaning their combined impact raises the risk significantly. Family history and environment (Choice A) may play a role in certain cancers, but alcohol and smoking are more directly linked to increased cancer risk. Proximity to an electric plant and water source (Choice D) is not typically associated with an increased risk of cancer compared to alcohol and smoking.
3. In hanging a parenteral IV fluid that is to be infused by gravity, rather than with an infusion pump, the nurse notes that the IV tubing is available in different drop factors. Which tubing is a microdrop set?
- A. 15 drops per milliliter
- B. 60 drops per milliliter
- C. 20 drops per milliliter
- D. 10 drops per milliliter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A microdrop set delivers 60 drops per milliliter of IV fluid. This allows for a more precise control of the infusion rate. The correct choice is B because it provides the desired microdrop rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A delivers 15 drops per milliliter, which is a macrodrop set. C delivers 20 drops per milliliter, also a macrodrop set. D delivers 10 drops per milliliter, another macrodrop set. Therefore, the correct choice for a microdrop set is B.
4. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?
- A. High calorie, low protein
- B. High protein, high calorie
- C. Low fat, low sodium
- D. High calorie, low sodium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs. Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy. Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein. Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.
5. A patient has been diagnosed with Guillain-Barre Syndrome. Which of the following statements is the most applicable when discussing the impairments with Guillain-Barre Syndrome with the patient?
- A. Guillain-Barre Syndrome improves in almost all cases within 5 years.
- B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes limited sensation in the abdominal region.
- C. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs.
- D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome affects breathing in severe cases.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement is that Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes muscle weakness in the legs. This muscle weakness typically starts in the legs and can progress to the upper body. Choice A is incorrect as while most cases do improve, the recovery time can vary. Choice B is incorrect as Guillain-Barre Syndrome primarily affects muscle weakness rather than sensation. Choice D is incorrect as severe cases of Guillain-Barre Syndrome can lead to respiratory muscle weakness, impacting breathing.
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