Nursing Elites

1. At what age will vision be 20/20 in children?

• A. 4 years old
• B. 5 years old
• C. 6 years old
• D. 7 years old

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 years old. At this age, children typically have the potential for 20/20 vision. This is considered the standard age for achieving optimal vision clarity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the age at which children achieve 20/20 vision.

2. The client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is asking for help with the repetitive behaviors. The nurse knows that these are a method of dealing with:

• A. Fearful situations
• B. Depression
• C. Delusions
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Anxiety. Repetitive behaviors in OCD serve as a way for individuals to cope with their anxiety. These behaviors are often performed to reduce the distress caused by obsessive thoughts. Choice A, fearful situations, is incorrect because the behaviors are more related to managing anxiety rather than fear itself. Choice B, depression, is incorrect as OCD behaviors are not typically a method of coping with depression. Choice C, delusions, is also incorrect as these behaviors are not aimed at managing delusional thoughts but rather anxiety in OCD.

3. The anemias most often associated with pregnancy are:

• A. folic acid and iron deficiency.
• B. folic acid deficiency and thalassemia.
• C. iron deficiency and thalassemia.
• D. thalassemia and B12 deficiency.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid and iron deficiency anemia are the most common types of anemia associated with pregnancy. Approximately 50% of pregnant women experience this type of anemia. Iron deficiency anemia during pregnancy typically results from the increased plasma volume, rather than a decrease in iron levels. Moreover, if a woman has iron deficiency anemia before pregnancy, it often worsens during pregnancy. Folic acid deficiency is also prevalent during pregnancy due to the increased demand for this nutrient to support fetal development. Thalassemia and B12 deficiency, while types of anemia, are not as commonly associated with pregnancy compared to folic acid and iron deficiency anemia, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. The nurse is teaching a community health class for cancer prevention and screening. Which individual has the highest risk for colon cancer?

• A. Client with irritable bowel syndrome
• B. Family history of colon polyps
• C. Client with cirrhosis of the liver
• D. History of colon surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A family history of colon polyps and/or colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Individuals with a family history are more likely to develop colon cancer due to genetic predisposition. While other factors like irritable bowel syndrome, cirrhosis of the liver, and history of colon surgery may contribute to an increased risk of colon cancer, having a family history of colon polyps is the highest risk factor. Irritable bowel syndrome does not directly increase the risk of colon cancer. Cirrhosis of the liver is associated with liver cancer rather than colon cancer. A history of colon surgery may reduce the risk of colon cancer in some cases by removing precancerous polyps.

5. A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid which of the following foods?

• A. lettuce
• B. cheese
• C. apples
• D. broccoli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with urinary tract calculi needs to avoid foods high in calcium to prevent the formation of more stones. Cheese is high in calcium, so it should be avoided. Lettuce, apples, and broccoli are not typically associated with high calcium content and are safe options for individuals with urinary tract calculi. Therefore, the correct answer is cheese. Choices A, C, and D are not high in calcium and are safe for consumption by individuals with urinary tract calculi.

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