NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client with decreased cardiac output secondary to heart failure with fluid volume overload. The effects of diminished renal perfusion will have which physiologic response?
- A. Diuresis
- B. Increased fluid retention
- C. Elevated bicarbonate level
- D. Paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When there is diminished renal perfusion due to decreased cardiac output, the kidneys receive less blood flow. This leads to a decrease in urine output and an increase in fluid retention, as the kidneys are not able to effectively filter and excrete excess fluid. Elevated bicarbonate level and paroxysmal idiopathic narcosis are not typically associated with diminished renal perfusion in heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased fluid retention.'
2. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
- B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
- C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
- D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.
3. Which is an example of a sentinel event?
- A. The terminally ill client is referred to hospice and dies 3 months later.
- B. A client receives an unordered mammogram which reveals a small cyst.
- C. A client with a laceration to the knee requiring 4 sutures falls when getting up unassisted after being instructed to remain in bed.
- D. A client scheduled for knee replacement surgery had an above-the-knee amputation performed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Yes! A sentinel event is an unexpected occurrence causing death or serious injury. In this case, a client who was scheduled for knee replacement surgery but had an above-the-knee amputation performed instead represents a sentinel event as it resulted in serious harm that was not intended. The other choices do not meet the criteria for a sentinel event. Choice A describes a natural progression for a terminally ill client, choice B shows an incidental finding from a test, and choice C involves a preventable fall leading to an injury but not a sentinel event.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with full-thickness burns to the left arm and trunk. What is the priority for this client?
- A. Pain management
- B. Airway assessment
- C. Fluid volume status monitoring
- D. Risk for infection prevention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! With full-thickness burns, there is a significant risk of fluid loss through the burn wound and fluid shift, leading to hypovolemia and shock. Monitoring and maintaining the client's fluid volume status is crucial to prevent complications like hypovolemic shock. Pain management (Option A) is essential but not the priority in this situation. While airway assessment (Option B) is crucial, it is typically assessed first in clients with respiratory distress. Preventing infection (Option D) is important but managing fluid volume status takes precedence in the initial care of a client with full-thickness burns.
5. The nurse observes a nursing assistant performing AM care for a client with a new leg cast. Which action by the assistant will the nurse intervene?
- A. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hands
- B. Covering the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills
- C. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing
- D. Elevating the casted leg on two pillows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to intervene when the assistant covers the affected leg with a blanket to avoid chills. A new cast should not be covered to allow the heat from the cast to evaporate, preventing complications. Lifting the affected leg with the palms of the hands is appropriate for proper handling. Placing plastic over the groin prior to bathing is a standard practice to protect the client's privacy and maintain hygiene. Elevating the casted leg on two pillows helps reduce swelling and promote circulation, making it a suitable action.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access