a patient has recently been prescribed norvasc which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

2. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with an elevated urine osmolarity. The nurse should assess the client for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated urine osmolarity indicates that the urine is concentrated, suggesting the body is trying to conserve water. This commonly occurs in conditions like dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Assessing the client for fluid volume excess, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia would not be the priority in this situation. Therefore, the correct answer is to assess the client for fluid volume deficit. Fluid volume excess is characterized by decreased urine osmolarity, while hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia are related to electrolyte imbalances and would not directly cause elevated urine osmolarity.

4. For a client with suspected appendicitis, where should the nurse expect to find abdominal tenderness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: lower right. Abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant is a classic symptom of appendicitis. This tenderness is known as McBurney's point, which is located in the lower-right quadrant of the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the tenderness associated with appendicitis is typically localized to the lower-right quadrant.

5. The drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is allopurinol (Zyloprim) as it is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that decreases uric acid formation. Allopurinol is commonly used to manage gout by lowering uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease inflammation, not to lower uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, but it is not the drug of choice for lowering uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and edema, not to decrease uric acid levels.

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