Nursing Elites

1. A patient has recently been prescribed Norvasc. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Hypotension and Angina
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower extremity edema
• D. Peripheral sensory loss and SOB

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypotension and Angina.' Norvasc is a medication known to cause hypotension (low blood pressure) and angina (chest pain) as side effects. These side effects are important for the patient to watch out for as they can indicate potential issues related to the medication. Choice B ('Hypertension') is incorrect as Norvasc is actually used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C ('Lower extremity edema') is not a common side effect of Norvasc. Choice D ('Peripheral sensory loss and SOB') is not typically associated with Norvasc's side effects.

2. During the admission assessment for a client undergoing breast augmentation, which information should the nurse prioritize reporting to the surgeon before surgery?

• A. The client is concerned about who will care for her two children while she recovers.
• B. The client has a history of postoperative dehiscence after a previous C-section.
• C. The client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior.
• D. The client's concerns over pain control postoperatively.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to report to the surgeon before surgery is the client's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks prior. This information is crucial as the client may be pregnant, and a pregnancy test will need to be completed before administering any anesthetic agents. Reporting this detail ensures patient safety and prevents potential risks associated with anesthesia. Choices A, B, and D are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over the need to rule out pregnancy before surgery.

3. Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?

• A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
• B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
• C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
• D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.

4. A client with stress incontinence should be advised:

• A. to avoid relying solely on absorbent undergarments.
• B. that Kegel exercises might help.
• C. that effective surgical treatments are available.
• D. that behavioral therapy can be beneficial.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises, which involve tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, can be beneficial for stress incontinence by strengthening the muscles that control urination. Choice A is incorrect as it is important for the client to know that absorbent undergarments can be used as a temporary solution but do not address the underlying issue. Choice C is incorrect as while surgical treatments are available, they are usually considered when conservative treatments like exercises and behavioral therapy have not been successful. Choice D is incorrect as behavioral therapy can be beneficial in managing stress incontinence through lifestyle and dietary modifications, bladder training, and more, contrary to the statement that it is ineffective.

5. How can a nurse recognize that a chronic renal failure client's AV shunt is patent?

• A. Absence of a bruit
• B. Presence of a thrill
• C. Blood return from the shunt
• D. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assessment to determine the patency of an AV shunt in a chronic renal failure client is the presence of a thrill. A thrill is a vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the shunt site, indicating good blood flow through the shunt. While the presence of a bruit is also important for assessing an AV shunt, a thrill is a more specific indicator of patency. Blood return from the shunt is related to cannulation and not necessarily an indicator of patency. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr is not directly related to the assessment of an AV shunt's patency.

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