Nursing Elites

1. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:

• A. thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
• B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
• C. estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
• D. glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.

2. What significant event occurs in the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship?

• A. establishment of roles
• B. identification of transference phenomenon
• C. placement of the client within their family structure
• D. client agreement that the nurse has the authority in the relationship

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the orientation phase of a nurse-client relationship, the significant event is the identification of transference phenomenon. Transference phenomena are intensified in relationships with authority figures like nurses and physicians. Positive transferences may include a desire for affection and dependency, while negative transferences may involve hostility and competitiveness. It is crucial to recognize and address these transferences before progress and positive changes can be made in the working stage. The other choices are incorrect; the establishment of roles may occur in the working phase, placing the client within their family structure is not a key event in the orientation phase, and client agreement on the nurse's authority is not the primary focus during this phase.

3. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

4. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?

• A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
• B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine
• C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
• D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine. Rifampin can change the color of the urine and body fluid. Teaching the client about these changes is important as the client might think this is a complication. Answer A is incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take rifampin with juice. Answer C is incorrect because rifampin should be taken at consistent times, not necessarily before going to bed. Answer D is incorrect as rifampin should be taken regularly as prescribed, not based on symptoms like night sweats.

5. Tricyclics (Antidepressants) can sometimes have which of the following adverse effects on patients diagnosed with depression?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Fainting
• C. Large intestine ulcers
• D. Distal muscular weakness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fainting.' Tricyclic antidepressants can cause fainting and hypotension as adverse effects. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is not a common side effect of tricyclics. Large intestine ulcers (Choice C) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressants. Distal muscular weakness (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of tricyclics but is commonly associated with other medications.

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