Nursing Elites

1. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

2. During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechiae of the palate. The nurse should:

• A. inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse.
• B. ask about the types of foods the child is eating.
• C. request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.
• D. question the parent about objects the child plays with.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to inquire about the possibility of sexual abuse. Injuries to the soft palate such as bruising, abrasions, and petechiae can be signs of sexual abuse in infants. While oral sex may not leave significant physical evidence, these findings should raise suspicion. Option A is correct as it focuses on addressing potential abuse. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because the child's diet, the type of bottle used for feedings, and play objects are not likely related to the observed injuries. The presence of oral injuries suggests considering sexual abuse rather than other factors.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:

• A. Grimacing and writhing movements decrease with relaxation and rest.
• B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes become more active with rest.
• C. Stretch reflexes are increased with rest.
• D. Fine motor movements are improved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.

4. When working with a client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder who frequently attempts self-harm, what is the best intervention to facilitate behavior change?

• A. Constantly observing the client to prevent self-harm.
• B. Enlisting the client in defining and describing harmful behaviors.
• C. Checking on the client every 15 minutes to ensure they are not engaging in harmful behavior.
• D. Removing all items from the environment that the client could use to harm themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention when working with clients who have a history of self-harm, like the client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, is to involve them actively in their treatment. By enlisting the client to define and describe the harmful behaviors, the client becomes an integral part of identifying triggers and understanding the underlying causes of their actions. This approach empowers the client, promotes self-awareness, and fosters a sense of control over their behaviors. Constantly observing the client (Choice A) may lead to a lack of trust and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Checking on the client every 15 minutes (Choice C) may disrupt the client's sense of autonomy and privacy. Removing all items from the environment that could be used for self-harm (Choice D) is a temporary solution and does not address the root causes of the behavior.

5. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:

• A. feelings about what has been described
• B. thoughts about what has been described
• C. possible solutions to the problem
• D. intent in sharing the description

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.

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