NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. Tricyclics (Antidepressants) can sometimes have which of the following adverse effects on patients diagnosed with depression?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Fainting
- C. Large intestine ulcers
- D. Distal muscular weakness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fainting.' Tricyclic antidepressants can cause fainting and hypotension as adverse effects. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is not a common side effect of tricyclics. Large intestine ulcers (Choice C) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressants. Distal muscular weakness (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of tricyclics but is commonly associated with other medications.
2. Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:
- A. hepatic clearance.
- B. total clearance.
- C. enterohepatic cycling.
- D. first-pass effect.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'enterohepatic cycling.' This process involves drugs being excreted into bile, delivered to the intestines, reabsorbed into the circulation, and can prolong the drug's presence in the body. 'Hepatic clearance' (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug eliminated by the liver. 'Total clearance' (Choice B) is the sum of all types of clearance including renal, hepatic, and respiratory. 'First-pass effect' (Choice D) is the amount of drug absorbed from the GI tract and metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing the amount of drug available for systemic circulation.
3. The nurse suspects an elderly client has been the victim of abuse. The client denies abuse and declines assistance. The nurse's next action should be to:
- A. respect the client's decision to refuse assistance.
- B. report the incident to the authorities.
- C. arrange an appointment with the client's family.
- D. educate the client about available services.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases where elderly clients deny abuse and refuse assistance, it is crucial for the nurse to respect their autonomy while also ensuring their safety. Educating the client about available services is the appropriate action as it empowers the client with information without imposing any decisions on them. It allows the client to make informed choices regarding their well-being. Reporting the incident to the authorities (Choice B) may be necessary if there is immediate danger, but in this scenario, the client denies abuse. Arranging an appointment with the client's family (Choice C) may not be appropriate without the client's consent or in cases where the family might be involved in the abuse. Simply doing nothing (Choice A) is not the best course of action as the nurse should still provide support and resources to the client.
4. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. a client with renal impairment
- B. a client with hypertension
- C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
- D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.
5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
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