Nursing Elites

1. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes
• B. Insertion of a Levine tube
• C. Continuous cardiac monitoring
• D. Administration of pain medication every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pancreatitis who frequently experiences nausea and vomiting, insertion of a Levine tube is often anticipated to decompress the stomach and rest the bowel, helping to alleviate symptoms. This intervention is crucial in managing the gastrointestinal symptoms associated with pancreatitis. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a routine order for pancreatitis, making option A less likely. Continuous cardiac monitoring could be required based on the individual's condition, but it is not typically the first priority in pancreatitis management, so option C is not the most anticipated order. While pain medication administration is essential for managing discomfort, the priority in this scenario, especially considering the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, would be decompression with a Levine tube to address gastrointestinal issues, making option D less likely.

2. In the emergency room, a nurse is responsible for triaging four clients injured in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following clients should receive priority in care?

• A. A 10-year-old with lacerations on the face
• B. A 15-year-old with sternal bruises
• C. A 34-year-old with a fractured femur
• D. A 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 15-year-old with sternal bruises should receive priority in care as this client might be experiencing airway and oxygenation problems. Airway issues take precedence in triage. The 10-year-old with lacerations on the face, although looking bad, is not in immediate distress. The 34-year-old with a fractured femur should be immobilized but can be seen after the client with sternal bruising. The 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow can also be seen later as dislocated elbows are not life-threatening compared to potential airway compromise.

3. Narrow therapeutic index medications:

• A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
• B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
• C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood
• D. have limited potency and side effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.

4. How should Lasix be administered to prevent hypotension?

• A. By administering it over 1-2 minutes
• B. By hanging it IV piggyback
• C. With normal saline only
• D. By administering it through a venous access device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lasix should be administered over 1-2 minutes at approximately 1mL per minute to prevent hypotension. This slow administration helps to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as sudden drops in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because Lasix does not need to be hung IV piggyback, choice C is incorrect as Lasix administration does not require it to be mixed with normal saline only, and choice D is incorrect as Lasix does not have to be specifically administered through a venous access device (VAD) to prevent hypotension.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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