a client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit which order would the nurse anticipate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. A client with pancreatitis has been transferred to the intensive care unit. Which order would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pancreatitis who frequently experiences nausea and vomiting, insertion of a Levine tube is often anticipated to decompress the stomach and rest the bowel, helping to alleviate symptoms. This intervention is crucial in managing the gastrointestinal symptoms associated with pancreatitis. Blood pressure monitoring every 15 minutes may be necessary in some cases, but it is not a routine order for pancreatitis, making option A less likely. Continuous cardiac monitoring could be required based on the individual's condition, but it is not typically the first priority in pancreatitis management, so option C is not the most anticipated order. While pain medication administration is essential for managing discomfort, the priority in this scenario, especially considering the symptoms of nausea and vomiting, would be decompression with a Levine tube to address gastrointestinal issues, making option D less likely.

2. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

3. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

4. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

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