NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?
- A. The client receiving chemotherapy
- B. The client post-coronary bypass
- C. The client with a TURP
- D. The client with diverticulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.
2. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?
- A. A client with Crohn's disease
- B. A client with pneumonia
- C. A client with gastritis
- D. A client with phlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.
3. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
4. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:
- A. mild anxiety.
- B. moderate anxiety.
- C. severe anxiety.
- D. a panic attack.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.
5. The client is admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood gases reveal pH 7.36, CO2 45, O2 84, HCO3 28. The nurse would assess the client to be in:
- A. Uncompensated acidosis
- B. Compensated alkalosis
- C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
- D. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is experiencing compensated respiratory acidosis. The pH is within the normal range but is lower than 7.40, indicating acidity. The elevated CO2 level and low O2 level suggest respiratory involvement. The slightly elevated HCO3 level indicates a compensatory mechanism. In respiratory acidosis, the pH will be inversely related to the CO2 and bicarb levels, with elevated CO2 and HCO3 levels contributing to acidosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the presented blood gas values and the compensatory response observed in this case.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access