NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. A client tells the nurse that his wife's nagging really gets on his nerves. He asks the nurse to talk with her about her nagging during their family session tomorrow afternoon. Which of the following responses is the most therapeutic for the client?
- A. "Tell me more specifically about her complaints."?
- B. "Can you think of reasons why she might nag you so much?"?
- C. "I'll help you think about how to bring this up yourself tomorrow afternoon."?
- D. "Why do you want me to initiate this in tomorrow's session rather than you?"?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to empower the client to address the issue himself. By offering assistance in thinking about how to bring up the topic during the family session, the nurse is promoting the client's autonomy and communication skills. This response encourages the client to take an active role in resolving the situation. Choices A and B focus on the wife's behavior, which is not the immediate concern during this interaction. Choice D challenges the client's request and shifts the responsibility back to the client, potentially hindering progress and discouraging open communication.
2. What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?
- A. puberty, pregnancy, and menopause.
- B. death of a spouse, menopause, and childbirth.
- C. rape, divorce, and menarche.
- D. dating, engagement, and separation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The three major sequential maturational crises affecting females are puberty, pregnancy, and menopause. Puberty signifies the beginning of menarche, the first menstrual period. Pregnancy is a transformative experience with long-lasting effects on a woman's life. Menopause marks the end of menstrual cycles. These milestones are well-documented in research and are significant events in a woman's life. Nurses play a vital role in supporting females through these stages. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the recognized sequential maturational crises in a female's life.
3. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:
- A. Promethazine
- B. Aspirin
- C. Sitz baths
- D. Ice packs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.
4. A client is admitted with Ewing's sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?
- A. Hemiplegia
- B. Aphasia
- C. Nausea
- D. Bone pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the bones. Therefore, bone pain would be an expected symptom due to this tumor's location. Hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on one side of the body, Aphasia, a language disorder, and Nausea are not typical symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma. While Nausea is a common symptom in various conditions, it is not specific to bone cancer like Ewing's sarcoma. Therefore, Bone pain is the most likely symptom associated with Ewing's sarcoma.
5. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:
- A. To lower the blood glucose level
- B. To lower the uric acid level
- C. To lower the ammonia level
- D. To lower the creatinine level
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.
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