Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

2. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

3. When providing culturally competent care to a couple from the Philippines living in the United States who are expecting their first child, what should the nurse do first?

• A. review their own cultural beliefs and biases
• B. respectfully request that the couple only use medically approved health care providers
• C. understand the clients' need to learn the accepted medical practices of their new country
• D. study family dynamics to comprehend the male and female gender roles in the clients' culture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing culturally competent care, the nurse's initial step is to reflect on and understand their own cultural beliefs and biases. By doing so, the nurse can approach the care of the couple from the Philippines with sensitivity and respect. This self-awareness helps the nurse recognize potential differences in beliefs and values, fostering effective communication and care. Option B is incorrect because it does not address the nurse's need for self-reflection. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on the clients adapting to the new country's practices rather than the nurse understanding the clients' existing beliefs. Option D is incorrect as it pertains to family dynamics and gender roles rather than the nurse's self-awareness.

4. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

5. The nurse is working with families who have been displaced by a fire in an apartment complex. What is the priority intervention during the initial assessment?

• A. Provide a liaison to meet housing needs.
• B. Attentively listen when clients describe their feelings.
• C. Offer nurturing support for clients who are confused by the events.
• D. Provide structure for clients exhibiting moderate to severe anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide a liaison to meet housing needs. In the initial assessment after a disaster like a fire, ensuring basic needs such as housing, clothing, and food are met is the priority. Once the physical needs are addressed, the nurse can then focus on assisting clients in managing the psychological effects of loss. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority during the initial assessment as addressing housing needs should come first to provide a sense of stability and security for the affected families.

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