Nursing Elites

1. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "I will ask the physician to prescribe medication for you."?
• B. "That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it."?
• C. "In the future, you might walk your dog in a more populated area or hire someone else to take over this task."?
• D. "Have you thought of moving to a safer neighborhood?"?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

3. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

4. When a woman is having her first child, she is experiencing which type of crisis event?

• A. situational
• B. maturational
• C. adventitious
• D. reactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A maturational crisis occurs when an individual reaches a new stage of development, such as becoming a parent for the first time, and needs to develop new coping strategies to adapt to this change. Situational crises (Choice A) arise from external sources, not developmental milestones. Adventitious crises (Choice C) are caused by external events like natural disasters and are not related to personal development stages. Reactive crises (Choice D) are responses to specific stressors and are not associated with developmental milestones like becoming a parent for the first time.

5. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:

• A. feelings about what has been described
• B. thoughts about what has been described
• C. possible solutions to the problem
• D. intent in sharing the description

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.

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