NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?
- A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.
2. The healthcare provider recognizes that which of the following would be most appropriate to wear when providing direct care to a client with a cough?
- A. Mask
- B. Gown
- C. Gloves
- D. Shoe covers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When providing care to a client with a cough, it is crucial to wear a mask to protect oneself from inhaling respiratory droplets containing infectious agents. The primary mode of transmission for coughs is through airborne droplets, making a mask the most appropriate choice to prevent the spread of respiratory infections. Gloves and gowns are more relevant when there is a risk of contact with bodily fluids, which is not the main concern with a cough. Shoe covers are not necessary in this scenario as the transmission of respiratory infections is not linked to footwear. Therefore, wearing a mask is the best choice to prevent airborne transmission and ensure the safety of the healthcare provider.
3. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?
- A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
- D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.
4. The mother of a newborn child is very upset. The child has a cleft lip and palate. The type of crisis this mother is experiencing is:
- A. reactive.
- B. maturational.
- C. situational.
- D. adventitious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The mother is experiencing a situational crisis as the unexpected birth of a child with a cleft lip and palate has placed her in a challenging situation she did not anticipate. This type of crisis is triggered by specific events and circumstances. Choice A, reactive, implies responding to a stressor after it has occurred, which is not the case here. Choice B, maturational, refers to stress related to developmental stages, not to external events like the child's condition. Choice D, adventitious, involves crises resulting from events outside one's control, such as natural disasters, which do not apply in this scenario.
5. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:
- A. mild anxiety.
- B. moderate anxiety.
- C. severe anxiety.
- D. a panic attack.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.
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