Nursing Elites

1. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

• A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
• B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
• C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
• D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

2. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

3. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:

• A. Report the incident to the Board of Nursing
• B. File a formal reprimand
• C. Terminate the nurse
• D. Charge the nurse with a tort

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident and file a formal reprimand. Reporting to the Board of Nursing may be necessary if the behavior persists or harm occurs to the client, but it is not the initial step. Termination should be considered if the issue continues despite warnings. Charging the nurse with a tort is not a suitable course of action in this situation as a tort refers to a wrongful act against a client or their belongings, not an appropriate disciplinary measure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

4. To ensure safety while administering a nitroglycerine patch, what should the nurse do?

• A. Wear gloves
• B. Shave the area where the patch will be applied
• C. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and rinse with hot water
• D. Apply the patch to the buttocks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To protect herself, the nurse should wear gloves when applying a nitroglycerine patch or cream. Answer B is incorrect because shaving the area where the patch will be applied might abrade the skin, increasing the risk of irritation. Answer C is incorrect because washing with hot water can vasodilate the skin, potentially increasing the absorption of nitroglycerine. Nitroglycerine patches should be applied to areas above the waist, making answer D incorrect as applying it to the buttocks is not recommended.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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