NCLEX-PN
2024 Nclex Questions
1. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?
- A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.
2. A client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia has been released from an acute care setting. The client had a prolonged recovery from relapse. One of the parents says to the discharge nurse, 'I do not understand what is going on. The hospital said she was better, but all she does is sit around all day and smoke. We cannot get her to go to the vocational training you arranged.' The nurse recognizes that more teaching is needed about
- A. the pathophysiology and behavioral manifestations of schizophrenia.
- B. support groups that can help the parents cope with their frustration.
- C. the prolonged recovery time and side effects of medications to prevent relapse.
- D. motivational techniques that are effective in engaging clients with schizophrenia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse conducting discharge teaching must emphasize the extended recovery process and the potential side effects of medications used to prevent relapse in individuals with schizophrenia. In this scenario, it is crucial for the parents to understand that the client's behavior may be influenced by the medication's sedative qualities and the time required for full recovery. While support groups can assist caregivers in coping with their emotions and providing better care, the priority here is educating on the recovery process and medication effects. Motivational techniques are beneficial but may not be the immediate focus in this situation.
3. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
4. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
5. When helping a client gain insight into anxiety, the nurse should:
- A. help the client relate anxiety to specific triggers.
- B. ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.
- C. encourage the client to practice relaxation techniques.
- D. address the client's resistive behavior.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assisting a client in gaining insight into anxiety, it is crucial to explore the events that lead to increased anxiety. By asking the client to describe these events, the nurse can help the client recognize patterns and triggers, leading to a better understanding of their anxiety. Option A is incorrect because it refers to triggers rather than exploring the events leading to anxiety. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on relaxation techniques rather than delving into the root causes of anxiety. Option D is inappropriate as addressing resistive behavior may not foster a supportive therapeutic environment for the client.
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