Nursing Elites

1. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

• A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
• B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
• C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
• D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

2. A client has rectal cancer and is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection. What should be the priority nursing care during the post-op period?

• A. Teaching perineal wound care techniques
• B. Monitoring electrolyte levels
• C. Encouraging early ambulation
• D. Facilitating perineal wound drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing care during the post-op period for a client who underwent an abdominal perineal resection is to facilitate perineal wound drainage. This is crucial for preventing infection of the surgical site and promoting healing. Teaching perineal wound care techniques, as in choice A, is more appropriate than ileostomy care in this scenario. While monitoring electrolyte levels is important, it is not the priority compared to ensuring proper wound drainage, making choice B less crucial. Encouraging early ambulation, as in choice C, is beneficial but not as critical as facilitating wound drainage immediately post-op.

3. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

4. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?

• A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
• B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
• C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
• D. She has frequent sore throats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column. Answers A, C, and D are not related to the question. Gestational length (choice A) is not a direct risk factor for cerebral palsy. Physiologic jaundice (choice C) and frequent sore throats (choice D) are not typically associated with cerebral palsy.

5. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

• A. Amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses.
• B. Amphetamines have a low risk of tolerance or addiction.
• C. Amphetamines produce a 10-20-second rush followed by a 2-4-hour high.
• D. Addiction to barbiturates and amphetamines is rare because they have opposite effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

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