Nursing Elites

1. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

• A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
• B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
• C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
• D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

2. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?

• A. A client with Crohn's disease
• B. A client with pneumonia
• C. A client with gastritis
• D. A client with phlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.

3. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

4. Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?

• A. The nurse with 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit
• B. The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
• C. The nurse with 10 years of experience in surgery
• D. The nurse with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery (answer B) should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia. This nurse has the most relevant experience and knowledge of possible complications associated with preeclampsia due to their background in labor and delivery. Assigning a nurse with only 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit (answer A) would not be suitable for handling the complexities of caring for a client with preeclampsia. Nurses with experience in surgery (answer C) or the neonatal intensive care unit (answer D) lack the specific expertise needed for managing a postpartal client with preeclampsia, making them unsuitable choices for this assignment.

5. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

• A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
• B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
• C. Identification of peripheral pulses
• D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client with a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm scheduled for surgical repair is the identification of peripheral pulses. During surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess peripheral pulses and monitor the return of circulation to the lower extremities postoperatively. Assessing the client's level of anxiety (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as ensuring adequate circulation. Evaluating exercise tolerance (Choice B) is not recommended preoperatively for this situation. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (Choice D) is of lesser concern compared to the critical need to monitor peripheral circulation.

Similar Questions