NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:
- A. report a positive self-concept.
- B. identify negative thoughts.
- C. recognize positive thoughts.
- D. give one positive cue with each negative cue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.
2. A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:
- A. is pregnant.
- B. is immunocompromised.
- C. is allergic to neomycin.
- D. has a cold.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold. A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine due to the live rubella component, which may lead to birth defects or disease. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.
3. When providing culturally competent care to a couple from the Philippines living in the United States who are expecting their first child, what should the nurse do first?
- A. review their own cultural beliefs and biases
- B. respectfully request that the couple only use medically approved health care providers
- C. understand the clients' need to learn the accepted medical practices of their new country
- D. study family dynamics to comprehend the male and female gender roles in the clients' culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When providing culturally competent care, the nurse's initial step is to reflect on and understand their own cultural beliefs and biases. By doing so, the nurse can approach the care of the couple from the Philippines with sensitivity and respect. This self-awareness helps the nurse recognize potential differences in beliefs and values, fostering effective communication and care. Option B is incorrect because it does not address the nurse's need for self-reflection. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on the clients adapting to the new country's practices rather than the nurse understanding the clients' existing beliefs. Option D is incorrect as it pertains to family dynamics and gender roles rather than the nurse's self-awareness.
4. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:
- A. 900
- B. 1200
- C. 1700
- D. 2100
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access