a successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis negative self concept related to unrealistic selfexpectations is when the client can
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions

1. A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.

2. When working with a client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder who frequently attempts self-harm, what is the best intervention to facilitate behavior change?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most effective intervention when working with clients who have a history of self-harm, like the client diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder, is to involve them actively in their treatment. By enlisting the client to define and describe the harmful behaviors, the client becomes an integral part of identifying triggers and understanding the underlying causes of their actions. This approach empowers the client, promotes self-awareness, and fosters a sense of control over their behaviors. Constantly observing the client (Choice A) may lead to a lack of trust and hinder the therapeutic relationship. Checking on the client every 15 minutes (Choice C) may disrupt the client's sense of autonomy and privacy. Removing all items from the environment that could be used for self-harm (Choice D) is a temporary solution and does not address the root causes of the behavior.

3. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client scheduled for a pericentesis should be instructed to empty the bladder to prevent the risk of bladder puncture when the needle is inserted. A pericentesis involves removing fluid from the peritoneal cavity. The client is typically positioned sitting up or leaning over a table, making answer A incorrect. During a pericentesis, the client is usually awake, so answer C is incorrect. Medications are not commonly injected into the peritoneal cavity during this procedure, making answer D incorrect. However, it's important to note that the administration of medications during the procedure could vary based on specific circumstances.

4. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

5. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best client to transfer to the postpartum unit is the 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy. The nurses on the postpartum unit will be knowledgeable about postoperative care and can manage any complications related to the surgery. Choices A and D would be more appropriately cared for on a medical-surgical unit due to their conditions. Choice C should be transferred to a psychiatric unit for specialized care related to severe depression.

Similar Questions

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