Nursing Elites

1. A successful resolution of the nursing diagnosis Negative Self-Concept (related to unrealistic self-expectations) is when the client can:

• A. report a positive self-concept.
• B. identify negative thoughts.
• C. recognize positive thoughts.
• D. give one positive cue with each negative cue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'report a positive self-concept.' The problem statement is Negative Self-Concept, so the goal is for the client to achieve a positive self-concept. This involves helping the client recognize their worth and strengths. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the resolution of Negative Self-Concept. Identifying negative thoughts (B) is a step towards improvement but does not represent a successful resolution. Recognizing positive thoughts (C) is positive but not the primary goal in addressing Negative Self-Concept. 'Give one positive cue with each negative cue' (D) is not as comprehensive as achieving an overall positive self-concept.

2. A corporate executive works 60-80 hours a week. The client is experiencing some physical signs of stress. The nurse teaches the client biofeedback techniques. This is an example of which of the following health-promotion interventions?

• A. structure
• B. relaxation technique
• C. time management
• D. regular exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'relaxation technique.' Biofeedback techniques are a form of relaxation technique that can help individuals quiet the mind, release tension, and counteract responses to stress. Teaching biofeedback techniques to the client aims to promote relaxation and stress management. Choice A, 'structure,' does not directly relate to teaching biofeedback techniques. Choice C, 'time management,' focuses on organizing tasks efficiently, not on relaxation techniques. Choice D, 'regular exercise,' although beneficial for overall health, is not specifically related to the teaching of biofeedback techniques for stress relief.

3. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

• A. an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts
• B. an arrest of the normal flow of bile
• C. an inflammation of the gallbladder
• D. the formation of gallstones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

4. An adult who had been abused as a child is discussing the group therapy program. Which statement indicates that the client has gained insight?

• A. "I think I was a lonely child because I could not tell anyone about my abuse."?
• B. "I am now aware of how deep-seated my anger is. Before, I did not realize I was angry."?
• C. "The program has given me the courage to tell my mother how I felt about her role in my hurt."?
• D. "There are so many people just like me, who are just normal people that had bad things happen to them."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates insight gained by the client regarding their emotional state. Recognizing deep-seated anger that was previously unrecognized indicates progress in understanding their emotions and the impact of past abuse. Choice A reflects a sense of loneliness due to an inability to share about the abuse, which does not directly address emotional insight. Choice C shows progress in addressing relationships but does not specifically relate to emotional awareness. Choice D acknowledges shared experiences but does not reflect personal emotional growth or insight.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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