Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the acute care unit. Initial laboratory values reveal serum sodium of 170meq/L. What behavior changes would be most common for this client?

• A. Anger
• B. Mania
• C. Depression
• D. Psychosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mania.' A client with a serum sodium level of 170 meq/L has hypernatremia, which can lead to manic behavior. Hypernatremia is associated with irritability, restlessness, confusion, and in severe cases, manic symptoms. Choices A, C, and D (Anger, Depression, Psychosis) are not typically associated with hypernatremia and are, therefore, incorrect in this context.

2. Narrow therapeutic index medications:

• A. are drug formulations with limited pharmacokinetic variability.
• B. have limited value and require no monitoring of blood levels.
• C. have less than a twofold difference in minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood
• D. have limited potency and side effects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic index is the ratio between the median lethal dose and median effective dose of a drug, indicating the safety margin. Narrow therapeutic index medications have a small difference between minimum toxic levels and minimum effective concentration in the blood, making them high-risk drugs that require close monitoring to avoid toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because pharmacokinetics refer to drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination, not the therapeutic index. Choice B is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs necessitate monitoring due to their narrow margin of safety. Choice D is incorrect because narrow therapeutic index drugs do not necessarily have limited potency but are characterized by a small window between efficacy and toxicity.

3. The nurse suspects an elderly client has been the victim of abuse. The client denies abuse and declines assistance. The nurse's next action should be to:

• A. respect the client's decision to refuse assistance.
• B. report the incident to the authorities.
• C. arrange an appointment with the client's family.
• D. educate the client about available services.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where elderly clients deny abuse and refuse assistance, it is crucial for the nurse to respect their autonomy while also ensuring their safety. Educating the client about available services is the appropriate action as it empowers the client with information without imposing any decisions on them. It allows the client to make informed choices regarding their well-being. Reporting the incident to the authorities (Choice B) may be necessary if there is immediate danger, but in this scenario, the client denies abuse. Arranging an appointment with the client's family (Choice C) may not be appropriate without the client's consent or in cases where the family might be involved in the abuse. Simply doing nothing (Choice A) is not the best course of action as the nurse should still provide support and resources to the client.

4. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's:

• A. feelings about what has been described
• B. thoughts about what has been described
• C. possible solutions to the problem
• D. intent in sharing the description

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a psychosocial assessment, the nurse should progress from having the client describe problematic behaviors to eliciting their thoughts about the dilemmas. This step provides essential assessment data and insights into the client's interpretation of the situation. Asking about feelings, solutions, or intent in sharing the description is premature at this stage. Understanding the client's thoughts is crucial before delving into more complex emotional or problem-solving aspects. Therefore, the correct answer is to elicit the client's thoughts about the described behaviors and situations, as this helps the nurse gain a deeper understanding of the client's perspective and thought processes.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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