Nursing Elites

1. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

• A. Rotating application sites
• B. Limiting applications to the chest
• C. Rubbing it into the skin
• D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

2. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

• A. the increased number of single-parent households in African-American communities
• B. more single-parent households in African-American communities
• C. stricter child-rearing practices in African-American households
• D. a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

3. The client is being assessed for possible pernicious anemia. Which finding would support this diagnosis?

• A. A weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks
• B. Complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities
• C. A red, beefy tongue
• D. A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a red, beefy tongue, which is characteristic of pernicious anemia due to the atrophy of the papillae on the tongue. This finding is known as glossitis. A red, beefy tongue is a classic sign of pernicious anemia. Choice A, weight loss of 10 pounds in 2 weeks, is non-specific and not a typical finding in pernicious anemia. Choice B, complaints of numbness and tingling in the extremities, are more indicative of peripheral neuropathy, a common symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be seen in pernicious anemia. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL, falls within the normal range and does not specifically point towards pernicious anemia, which is characterized by low hemoglobin levels due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

4. What should the charge nurse do after overhearing the patient care assistant speaking harshly to the client with dementia?

• A. Change the patient care assistant's assignment
• B. Explore the interaction with the patient care assistant
• C. Discuss the matter with the client's family
• D. Initiate a group session with the patient care assistant

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the charge nurse to take is to explore the interaction with the patient care assistant. This step allows for clarification of the situation and direct addressing of the issue. Changing the patient care assistant's assignment (choice A) might be necessary, but understanding the situation should come first. Discussing the matter with the client's family (choice C) as an initial step could escalate the situation. Initiating a group session with the patient care assistant (choice D) could be considered later as a preventive measure to avoid similar incidents in the future.

5. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

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