Nursing Elites

1. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?

• A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
• B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
• C. Take the medication with water only
• D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.

2. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?

• A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
• B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
• C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
• D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.

3. Due to a high census, it has been necessary for a number of clients to be transferred to other units within the hospital. Which client should be transferred to the postpartum unit?

• A. A 66-year-old female with gastroenteritis
• B. A 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy
• C. A 27-year-old male with severe depression
• D. A 28-year-old male with ulcerative colitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best client to transfer to the postpartum unit is the 40-year-old female with a hysterectomy. The nurses on the postpartum unit will be knowledgeable about postoperative care and can manage any complications related to the surgery. Choices A and D would be more appropriately cared for on a medical-surgical unit due to their conditions. Choice C should be transferred to a psychiatric unit for specialized care related to severe depression.

4. Which of the following clients should refrain from therapy with the thiazide diuretic hydrochlorothiazide?

• A. a client with renal impairment
• B. a client with hypertension
• C. a client with diabetes mellitus, type II
• D. a client with renal calculi (kidney stones)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with diabetes mellitus, type II. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause metabolic abnormalities, including elevated blood glucose levels. This increase is linked to diuretic-induced potassium deficiency, which reduces insulin secretion, leading to higher plasma glucose levels. Thiazides are commonly used in clients with renal impairment and hypertension. Moreover, thiazides decrease calcium excretion, reducing the risk of renal calculi, so it is not contraindicated for clients with kidney stones. Therefore, clients with diabetes mellitus, type II should avoid therapy with hydrochlorothiazide due to the potential adverse effects on blood glucose levels.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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