NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:
- A. The baby is dehydrated due to polyuria.
- B. The baby is hypoglycemic due to lack of glucose.
- C. The baby is allergic to the formula the mother is giving him.
- D. The baby can lose up to 10% of weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and initiation of breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.
2. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?
- A. Birth-3 years old
- B. 4-6 years old
- C. 6-10 years old
- D. More than 10 years old
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.
3. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:
- A. thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
- B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
- C. estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
- D. glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.
4. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?
- A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
- B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
- C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
- D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.
5. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
- A. "Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss."?
- B. "Increase the fiber in your diet."?
- C. "Report nausea to the doctor immediately."?
- D. "Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.
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