Nursing Elites

1. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:

• A. The baby is dehydrated due to polyuria.
• B. The baby is hypoglycemic due to lack of glucose.
• C. The baby is allergic to the formula the mother is giving him.
• D. The baby can lose up to 10% of weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and initiation of breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.

2. How should Lasix be administered to prevent hypotension?

• A. By administering it over 1-2 minutes
• B. By hanging it IV piggyback
• C. With normal saline only
• D. By administering it through a venous access device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lasix should be administered over 1-2 minutes at approximately 1mL per minute to prevent hypotension. This slow administration helps to reduce the risk of adverse effects such as sudden drops in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because Lasix does not need to be hung IV piggyback, choice C is incorrect as Lasix administration does not require it to be mixed with normal saline only, and choice D is incorrect as Lasix does not have to be specifically administered through a venous access device (VAD) to prevent hypotension.

3. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

4. A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?

• A. packed red blood cells
• B. platelets
• C. plasma
• D. granulocytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Packed red blood cells contain antigens and antibodies that must be matched between the donor and recipient to prevent transfusion reactions. Platelets, plasma, and granulocytes do not contain red blood cells, so they do not require cross-matching. Platelets are matched based on ABO compatibility, while plasma and granulocytes are not routinely cross-matched as they lack red cell antigens.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

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