Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client in crisis, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving.
• B. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors and responses to the situation.
• C. Focusing on immediate stress reduction.
• D. Recommending ongoing therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in crisis, the nurse's priority is to focus on immediate stress reduction. Crisis intervention aims to stabilize the client in the present moment by addressing the most pressing issues. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving (Choice A) may not be appropriate during a crisis as they might need immediate support. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority during a crisis. Recommending ongoing therapy (Choice D) may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on reducing the client's stress and stabilizing the situation.

2. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

3. When discussing the patterns of use of alcohol and other drugs, which piece of information should the nurse include?

• A. Lifetime prevalence and intensity of alcohol use are greater in men than in women.
• B. Caucasians report higher levels of alcohol use than African Americans or Hispanics.
• C. Overuse of alcohol and other drugs increases into the mid-20s, then levels off and decreases with age.
• D. Heavy use is more common in lower socioeconomic groups due to affordability.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that overuse of alcohol and other drugs increases into the mid-20s, then levels off and decreases with age. Recent research indicates that alcohol and illicit drug use tends to rise into the mid-20s and then decline with age. Choices A and B are incorrect because lifetime prevalence and intensity of alcohol use are greater in men than in women, and Caucasians do not report higher levels of alcohol use compared to African Americans or Hispanics. Choice D is incorrect because heavy use is more common in lower socioeconomic groups due to factors like stress, coping mechanisms, and availability, not just affordability.

4. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

5. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

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