Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client in crisis, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving.
• B. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors and responses to the situation.
• C. Focusing on immediate stress reduction.
• D. Recommending ongoing therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is in crisis, the nurse's priority is to focus on immediate stress reduction. Crisis intervention aims to stabilize the client in the present moment by addressing the most pressing issues. Allowing the client to work through independent problem-solving (Choice A) may not be appropriate during a crisis as they might need immediate support. Completing an in-depth evaluation of stressors (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority during a crisis. Recommending ongoing therapy (Choice D) may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on reducing the client's stress and stabilizing the situation.

2. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse's station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Rationalization
• B. Denial
• C. Projection
• D. Conversion reaction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. The client displaying denial refuses to acknowledge the reality of having a myocardial infarction. Rationalization (choice A) involves making excuses for behavior, not denying a condition. Projection (choice C) is attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, not denying an illness. Conversion reaction (choice D) is converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not evident in this scenario. Therefore, denial is the defense mechanism being used in this situation.

3. An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?

• A. knowledge that elder abuse is rare
• B. personal belief that abuse is deserved
• C. lack of developmentally appropriate screening tools
• D. fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Barriers to reporting elder abuse include victim shame, fear of reprisals, fear of loss of caregiver, and lack of knowledge of agencies that provide services. Many elders fear that reporting abuse results in their placement in long-term care because the current caregiver is the abuser. Choice A is incorrect because knowledge of the frequency of elder abuse is not a significant factor in a victim's reluctance to report. Choice B is also incorrect; while some victims may have feelings of undeservedness, it is not a common primary barrier to reporting abuse. Choice C is incorrect as the lack of appropriate screening tools may hinder identification but is not a significant barrier for the client to admit being a victim. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as the fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported is a common and significant barrier for elderly clients to admit being a victim.

4. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

5. The nurse is assigned to care for an infant with physiologic jaundice. Which action by the nurse would facilitate elimination of the bilirubin?

• A. Increasing the infant's fluid intake
• B. Maintaining the infant's body temperature at 98.6�F
• C. Minimizing tactile stimulation
• D. Decreasing caloric intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bilirubin is excreted through the kidneys, therefore increasing fluid intake can help facilitate its elimination. Maintaining the infant's body temperature is important for overall health but does not directly assist in eliminating bilirubin, making choice B incorrect. Choices C and D are irrelevant to bilirubin elimination in this scenario and do not address the specific issue of physiologic jaundice.

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