Nursing Elites

1. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

2. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with

• A. wearing clothing that is too small for the child
• B. the child being shaken
• C. falling while learning to walk
• D. parents trying to awaken the child

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' Children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms, leading to bruises in that area. The presentation of a difficult-to-awaken child with bruises on the upper arms is highly concerning for non-accidental trauma, such as abusive shaking. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely because the combination of a child being difficult to awaken and bruises on both upper arms is highly suggestive of non-accidental trauma rather than benign causes like ill-fitting clothing, falling while learning to walk, or parents trying to awaken the child.

3. In a brief treatment program for a client who was raped, what is a realistic short-term goal?

• A. Identify all psychosocial problems.
• B. Eliminate the client's enticing behaviors.
• C. Resolve feelings of trauma and fear.
• D. Verbalize feelings about the event.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, a realistic short-term goal for the client who was raped and starting a brief treatment program is to verbalize feelings about the event. This goal promotes the expression of emotions, which is crucial in the healing process. Identifying all psychosocial problems is too broad and not typically achievable in a brief treatment program. Eliminating the client's enticing behaviors is not a suitable short-term goal as the focus should be on emotional recovery. While resolving feelings of trauma and fear is important, verbalizing feelings about the event is a more specific and achievable goal in the short term.

4. A client sitting alone and talking to voices is observed by a nurse. When asked, the client reports he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse's next action should be:

• A. touching the client to help him return to reality
• B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
• C. asking the client to describe what is happening
• D. telling the client there are no voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, it can indicate the presence of hallucinations. Asking the client to describe what is happening is a crucial step as it helps the nurse understand the nature of the hallucinations and provides reassurance to the client. Touching the client without consent is inappropriate and can be distressing. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue, and telling the client there are no voices denies their experience and can lead to mistrust.

5. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

• A. 900
• B. 1200
• C. 1700
• D. 2100

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

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