NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?
- A. knowledge that elder abuse is rare
- B. personal belief that abuse is deserved
- C. lack of developmentally appropriate screening tools
- D. fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported
Correct answer: D
Rationale: One of the significant barriers for elderly clients to admit being victims of abuse is the fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported. Elderly individuals may be afraid of the consequences of reporting abuse, such as retaliation or increased violence from the abuser. This fear can prevent them from disclosing their victimization. Choices A and C are incorrect as knowledge of the rarity of elder abuse and the availability of appropriate screening tools do not directly impact the client's willingness to admit abuse. Choice B, personal belief that abuse is deserved, may be a factor for some individuals but is not as common or impactful as the fear of reprisal or further violence.
2. How can medication bound to protein affect drug availability?
- A. enhanced drug availability
- B. rapid distribution of the drug to receptor sites
- C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
- D. increased metabolism of the drug by the liver
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Medication bound to protein reduces the availability of the drug to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can effectively bind to active receptor sites. When a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with receptor sites, limiting its therapeutic impact. Choice A is incorrect because drug availability is reduced when it is bound to protein. Choice B is incorrect as rapid distribution to receptor sites is not possible if the drug is bound to protein and cannot bind with receptors. Choice D is incorrect as metabolism does not increase when the drug is bound to protein; the liver first needs to separate the drug from the protein before metabolism can occur.
3. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:
- A. 900
- B. 1200
- C. 1700
- D. 2100
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).
4. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:
- A. A cephalohematoma
- B. Molding
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Caput succedaneum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.
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