Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client denies that abuse is occurring. Which of the following factors could be a barrier for the client to admit being a victim?

• A. knowledge that elder abuse is rare
• B. personal belief that abuse is deserved
• C. lack of developmentally appropriate screening tools
• D. fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One of the significant barriers for elderly clients to admit being victims of abuse is the fear of reprisal or further violence if the incident is reported. Elderly individuals may be afraid of the consequences of reporting abuse, such as retaliation or increased violence from the abuser. This fear can prevent them from disclosing their victimization. Choices A and C are incorrect as knowledge of the rarity of elder abuse and the availability of appropriate screening tools do not directly impact the client's willingness to admit abuse. Choice B, personal belief that abuse is deserved, may be a factor for some individuals but is not as common or impactful as the fear of reprisal or further violence.

2. A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

• A. generalized anxiety disorder.
• B. schizophrenia.
• C. post-traumatic stress disorder.
• D. bipolar disorder.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Given the history of childhood sexual abuse and the presenting symptoms of difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares, the nurse should assess the client for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Childhood sexual abuse is strongly associated with adult-onset depression and an increased risk for PTSD. Individuals with PTSD may exhibit re-experiencing symptoms such as flashbacks, nightmares, and heightened reactions to trauma triggers. They may also display emotional numbing, avoidance behaviors, and increased arousal symptoms like difficulty sleeping and hypervigilance. Generalized anxiety disorder (Choice A) is characterized by excessive worry and anxiety about various events or activities, not necessarily tied to a specific trauma. Schizophrenia (Choice B) is a severe mental disorder characterized by distortions in thinking, perception, emotions, and behavior, unrelated to the traumatic event described. Bipolar disorder (Choice D) involves mood swings between depressive and manic episodes, and its symptoms differ from those typically seen in PTSD.

3. Tricyclics (Antidepressants) can sometimes have which of the following adverse effects on patients diagnosed with depression?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Fainting
• C. Large intestine ulcers
• D. Distal muscular weakness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fainting.' Tricyclic antidepressants can cause fainting and hypotension as adverse effects. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is not a common side effect of tricyclics. Large intestine ulcers (Choice C) are not typically associated with tricyclic antidepressants. Distal muscular weakness (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of tricyclics but is commonly associated with other medications.

4. Which of the following solutions is routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood to a client?

• A. 0.9% sodium chloride
• B. 5% dextrose in water solution
• C. Sterile water
• D. Heparin sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 0.9% sodium chloride. Normal saline is 0.9% sodium chloride, which has the same osmolarity as blood and does not cause cell lysis. Choices 2 and 3, 5% dextrose in water solution and sterile water, are hypotonic solutions that can lead to cell lysis. Choice 4, Heparin sodium, is an anticoagulant and is not routinely used to flush an IV device before and after the administration of blood.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:

• A. elevated blood pressure.
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
• C. elevated pulse rate.
• D. decreased temperature.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.

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