a 60 year old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping extreme apprehension shortness of breath and a sense of impending doom
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

2. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident and file a formal reprimand. Reporting to the Board of Nursing may be necessary if the behavior persists or harm occurs to the client, but it is not the initial step. Termination should be considered if the issue continues despite warnings. Charging the nurse with a tort is not a suitable course of action in this situation as a tort refers to a wrongful act against a client or their belongings, not an appropriate disciplinary measure. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

4. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.

5. When assessing a client's self-expectations about weight loss, which question is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client's self-expectations about weight loss, it is crucial to inquire about what the client considers a realistic weekly weight loss goal. This question helps in understanding the client's perception and expectations regarding the weight loss journey, enabling the establishment of achievable goals. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the aspect of setting realistic goals for weight loss. While questioning about changing eating habits, feelings about losing weight, or the importance of weight loss are relevant, they do not specifically focus on setting achievable goals, which is essential for effective weight management.

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