Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

2. Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?

• A. The nurse with 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit
• B. The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
• C. The nurse with 10 years of experience in surgery
• D. The nurse with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery (answer B) should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia. This nurse has the most relevant experience and knowledge of possible complications associated with preeclampsia due to their background in labor and delivery. Assigning a nurse with only 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit (answer A) would not be suitable for handling the complexities of caring for a client with preeclampsia. Nurses with experience in surgery (answer C) or the neonatal intensive care unit (answer D) lack the specific expertise needed for managing a postpartal client with preeclampsia, making them unsuitable choices for this assignment.

3. The client is receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?

• A. Cyanocobalamin
• B. Protamine sulfate
• C. Streptokinase
• D. Sodium warfarin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its effects. Cyanocobalamin is a form of Vitamin B12 and is not used to reverse heparin effects. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that is used to dissolve blood clots, not to reverse heparin effects. Sodium warfarin is an anticoagulant, but it is not the antidote for heparin. Therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reverse the effects of heparin.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for mammography. To prepare the client for a mammogram, the nurse should tell the client:

• A. To omit creams, powders, or deodorants before the exam
• B. To restrict fat intake for 1 week before the test
• C. That mammography replaces the need for self-breast exams
• D. That mammography requires a higher dose of radiation than an x-ray

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client undergoing a mammogram should be instructed to omit deodorants or powders beforehand because they can interfere with the imaging results. Answer A is correct as it aligns with the preparation needed before a mammogram to ensure accurate results. Answer B is incorrect because there is no requirement for fat intake restrictions before a mammogram. Answer C is incorrect because mammography does not replace the necessity of self-breast exams; both are crucial for maintaining breast health. Answer D is incorrect because a mammogram does not require higher doses of radiation than an x-ray. In fact, mammography uses a low dose of radiation to create images for breast examination.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that

• A. Multiple drug use is common.
• B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
• C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
• D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.

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