Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

2. When teaching clients with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia nearing discharge from a residential care facility, what is an essential topic to include?

• A. pathophysiology of the disease and expected symptoms.
• B. how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse.
• C. the need to take extra medication when feeling stressed.
• D. the importance of contact with follow-up care daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating clients with Schizophrenia nearing discharge, it is crucial to focus on teaching them how to recognize and manage symptoms of relapse. Clients are usually aware of these symptoms, such as feeling anxious and overwhelmed, before the onset of psychosis. This early stage is vital for intervention, which involves finding a safe environment, seeking help, avoiding stressors, and reducing stimuli. Understanding and managing relapse symptoms empower clients to take proactive steps in their care. Choices A and C are not as immediate and practical as recognizing symptoms of relapse for client safety and well-being. While contact with follow-up care is important, it is not as urgent and specific as knowing how to manage relapse symptoms for immediate intervention.

3. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

• A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
• B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
• C. Identification of peripheral pulses
• D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.

4. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

5. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:

• A. denial
• B. suppression
• C. displacement
• D. fantasy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Displacement is the transference of emotions, such as anger, to a substitute target that may be less threatening. In this scenario, James redirects his anger from the teacher to the dog. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality. Suppression is consciously putting aside unwanted thoughts or feelings. Fantasy involves imagining unrealistic scenarios. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is displacement as James displaces his anger towards the dog.

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