NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
- B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
- C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
- D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.
2. An adolescent female reports being raped at a party where alcohol was served. The client admits to drinking alcohol before being raped by an acquaintance. The nurse should:
- A. inform the client that because she is underage, she is not at fault for attending a party where alcohol was served.
- B. ask the client if anyone witnessed the event because the client was intoxicated and might not remember it accurately.
- C. inform the client that it was not her fault, and support the client through the physical examination.
- D. question whether the woman had consensual sex and now just feels guilty.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of rape, it is crucial to provide support and reassurance to the victim. The nurse should inform the client that it was not her fault and offer support through the physical examination. Blaming the victim, as in choice A, is inappropriate and can be damaging to the client's well-being. Choice B is not the priority at this moment; the immediate focus should be on supporting the client. Choice D is victim-blaming and implies doubt about the client's report, which is harmful and not supportive. It is essential to create a safe and supportive environment for the client to facilitate healing and recovery.
3. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:
- A. A cephalohematoma
- B. Molding
- C. Subdural hematoma
- D. Caput succedaneum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.
4. Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?
- A. Recommend that she discipline her daughter more strictly and consistently.
- B. Make a list of things she can do to help improve her husband.
- C. Assist the mother to identify what she believes is preventing her success and what she can do to improve.
- D. Explore with the mother what the daughter can do to improve her behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for a mother who feels incompetent in parenting a teenage daughter is to assist her in identifying the factors contributing to her feelings of inadequacy and help her develop better coping and mothering skills. This approach focuses on addressing the mother's emotional needs and empowering her to improve her situation. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the daughter's discipline, which may not be the root cause of the mother's feelings. Option B is irrelevant as it focuses on improving her husband, not her parenting skills. Option D is incorrect as it shifts the focus solely to the daughter's behavior, neglecting the mother's emotional needs and self-improvement.
5. The client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
- A. "Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss."?
- B. "Increase the fiber in your diet."?
- C. "Report nausea to the doctor immediately."?
- D. "Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, a condition characterized by inflammation of the bladder wall leading to bleeding. To prevent this complication, the client should drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Walking to prevent calcium loss (choice A) and increasing fiber intake (choice B) are not directly related to the side effects of Cytoxan, making them unnecessary instructions in this case. While nausea is a common side effect of chemotherapy, the immediate reporting of nausea to the doctor (choice C) is important but not specifically related to the use of Cytoxan in this scenario.
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