NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
- B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
- C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
- D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.
2. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:
- A. Promethazine
- B. Aspirin
- C. Sitz baths
- D. Ice packs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.
3. A nurse notes that an elderly client suddenly does not keep appointments and is not wearing appropriate clothing. Which statement by the client raises the suspicion of financial abuse?
- A. "I am having difficulty paying for this new antibiotic the physician prescribed."?
- B. "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."?
- C. "I have not felt like shopping since the weather has gotten worse."?
- D. "People do not realize how difficult it is to make ends meet on a fixed income."?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I am a little short on cash since my daughter moved in to help me."? This statement raises suspicion of financial abuse as it suggests a recent change in financial circumstances after the daughter moved in. Financial abuse in elderly clients can be indicated by sudden unexplained financial deficits or changes, such as difficulty paying for necessities despite previously being able to do so. Choices A, C, and D do not directly imply a recent financial change due to external factors, making them less indicative of potential financial abuse. Option B is the most concerning statement that warrants further investigation into possible financial exploitation.
4. The healthcare provider recognizes that which of the following would be most appropriate to wear when providing direct care to a client with a cough?
- A. Mask
- B. Gown
- C. Gloves
- D. Shoe covers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When providing care to a client with a cough, it is crucial to wear a mask to protect oneself from inhaling respiratory droplets containing infectious agents. The primary mode of transmission for coughs is through airborne droplets, making a mask the most appropriate choice to prevent the spread of respiratory infections. Gloves and gowns are more relevant when there is a risk of contact with bodily fluids, which is not the main concern with a cough. Shoe covers are not necessary in this scenario as the transmission of respiratory infections is not linked to footwear. Therefore, wearing a mask is the best choice to prevent airborne transmission and ensure the safety of the healthcare provider.
5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?
- A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
- B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
- C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
- D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.
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