Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

2. A client with schizophrenia says, 'I'm away for the day ... but don't think we should play "? or do we have feet of clay?' Which alteration in the client's speech does the nurse document?

• A. Neologism
• B. Word salad
• C. Clang association
• D. Associative looseness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Associative looseness.' In the provided speech, the client shows associative looseness by making loose connections between phrases without a clear logical link. Clang association involves rhyming words without regard for their meaning. Neologism refers to made-up words with specific meaning to the client, and word salad is a jumble of words that lack coherence either to the listener or the client. Understanding these speech patterns associated with schizophrenia is crucial in identifying the specific alteration in speech displayed by the client in this scenario.

3. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

4. What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?

• A. puberty, pregnancy, and menopause.
• B. death of a spouse, menopause, and childbirth.
• C. rape, divorce, and menarche.
• D. dating, engagement, and separation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The three major sequential maturational crises affecting females are puberty, pregnancy, and menopause. Puberty signifies the beginning of menarche, the first menstrual period. Pregnancy is a transformative experience with long-lasting effects on a woman's life. Menopause marks the end of menstrual cycles. These milestones are well-documented in research and are significant events in a woman's life. Nurses play a vital role in supporting females through these stages. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the recognized sequential maturational crises in a female's life.

5. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

• A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
• B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
• C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
• D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.

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