Nursing Elites

1. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

2. How can medication bound to protein affect drug availability?

• A. enhanced drug availability
• B. rapid distribution of the drug to receptor sites
• C. less availability to produce desired medicinal effects
• D. increased metabolism of the drug by the liver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Medication bound to protein reduces the availability of the drug to produce desired medicinal effects because only unbound drugs can effectively bind to active receptor sites. When a drug is bound to protein, it cannot bind with receptor sites, limiting its therapeutic impact. Choice A is incorrect because drug availability is reduced when it is bound to protein. Choice B is incorrect as rapid distribution to receptor sites is not possible if the drug is bound to protein and cannot bind with receptors. Choice D is incorrect as metabolism does not increase when the drug is bound to protein; the liver first needs to separate the drug from the protein before metabolism can occur.

3. A client sitting alone and talking to voices is observed by a nurse. When asked, the client reports he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse's next action should be:

• A. touching the client to help him return to reality
• B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
• C. asking the client to describe what is happening
• D. telling the client there are no voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, it can indicate the presence of hallucinations. Asking the client to describe what is happening is a crucial step as it helps the nurse understand the nature of the hallucinations and provides reassurance to the client. Touching the client without consent is inappropriate and can be distressing. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue, and telling the client there are no voices denies their experience and can lead to mistrust.

4. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

• A. Atropine sulfate
• B. Furosemide
• C. Prostigmin
• D. Promethazine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.

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