Nursing Elites

1. A 50-milliliter (ml) bolus of normal saline fluid is ordered by the physician. The physician wants it to infuse in 30 minutes. The nurse should set the pump rate at:

• A. 100 ml per hour for one hour.
• B. 60 ml per hour for one-half hour
• C. 120 ml per hour for one hour.
• D. 50 ml per hour for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To infuse a 50 ml bolus in 30 minutes, the rate should be calculated as follows: 50 ml / 30 min = 100 ml per hour. Therefore, the correct answer is to set the pump rate at 100 ml per hour for one hour. Choice A is the correct rate based on the calculation. Choices B, C, and D all provide incorrect rates that do not match the physician's order. Choice B would only deliver 30 ml in 30 minutes, not the ordered 50 ml. Choice C would deliver 120 ml in one hour, which is 20 ml more than ordered. Choice D would only provide 25 ml over 30 minutes, not the full 50 ml prescribed.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor:

• A. That can be assessed
• B. That is in situ
• C. With increasing lymph node involvement
• D. With distant metastasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'That is in situ.' Cancer in situ means that the cancer is still localized to the primary site. Cancer is graded in terms of tumor, grade, node involvement, and metastasis. Answer A is incorrect because Tis indicates a tumor that is in situ and can be assessed. Answer C is incorrect because T indicates tumor, not node involvement. Answer D is incorrect because a tumor that is in situ is not metastasized.

3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

4. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

5. Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley's level of anxiety as:

• A. mild.
• B. moderate.
• C. severe.
• D. panic.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Based on the symptoms described, Ashley's level of anxiety should be assessed as severe. In severe anxiety, individuals have difficulty solving problems and understanding their environment. They often exhibit somatic symptoms like dizziness, nausea, rapid pulse, and hyperventilation. In contrast, mild anxiety may lead to mild discomfort or even enhanced performance. Moderate anxiety involves grasping less information, mild difficulty in problem-solving, and slight changes in vital signs. Panic, on the other hand, is characterized by markedly disturbed behavior and a potential loss of touch with reality. Therefore, in Ashley's case, the presence of somatic symptoms and vital sign changes indicates severe anxiety.

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