NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. After a client undergoes a left lower lobe lung resection for lung cancer, which post-operative measure would typically be included in the plan?
- A. Closed chest drainage
- B. A tracheostomy
- C. A mediastinal tube
- D. Percussion vibration and drainage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a lung resection, such as the removal of the left lower lobe for lung cancer, closed chest drainage is a common post-operative measure to help drain any excess air or fluid from the chest cavity. A tracheostomy is not typically needed for this procedure, so choice B is incorrect. Similarly, a mediastinal tube is not routinely inserted following a left lower lobe lung resection, making choice C incorrect. Percussion vibration and drainage are not indicated for this type of surgery, so choice D is also incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is closed chest drainage.
2. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
- A. Atropine sulfate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Prostigmin
- D. Promethazine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
3. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
- A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
- C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
- D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.
4. A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:
- A. Ensure adequate fluid intake 24 hours before the procedure
- B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study
- C. Administer medication that affects the central nervous system as prescribed
- D. Position the client appropriately for the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to void immediately before the study. For an intravenous pyelogram, the client may have orders for laxatives or enemas, so ensuring the client voids before the test is important to prevent obscuring visualization of the kidney, ureters, and bladder. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to force fluids before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as medications affecting the central nervous system should not be held unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as covering the reproductive organs with an x-ray shield is not necessary for an intravenous pyelogram.
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
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