which laboratory test would be the least effective in making the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Practice Questions 2024

1. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.

2. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.

3. When planning care of a client who has been diagnosed with Amphetamine Abuse, the nurse should use the knowledge that:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that amphetamines increase energy by increasing dopamine levels at neural synapses. Amphetamines cause the release of norepinephrine and dopamine from storage vesicles into the synapse, leading to increased stimulation. It is important to note that clear patterns of tolerance and withdrawal have not been described with amphetamines. Choice B is incorrect as prolonged or excessive use of amphetamines can lead to psychosis, indicating a potential for addiction. Choice C is incorrect as the duration of the effects of amphetamines is typically longer than 2-4 hours. Choice D is incorrect as addiction to amphetamines is not rare; in fact, drug cravings are common and can lead to relapse, indicating a significant risk of addiction.

4. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is dying. While assessing the client for signs of impending death, the nurse observes the client for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are a pattern of breathing characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. This pattern is often associated with conditions like cardiac failure and can be a sign of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typically associated with the dying process. Decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death. Therefore, option B, Cheyne-Stokes respiration, is the correct choice when assessing a client for signs of impending death.

Similar Questions

The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:
The nurse is assessing the client recently returned from surgery. The nurse is aware that the best way to assess pain is to:
A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg po tid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses