when assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

2. When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which of the following findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with glaucoma, a common finding is complaints of halos around lights. Other symptoms of glaucoma include loss of peripheral vision or blind spots, reddened sclera, firm globe, decreased accommodation, and occasional eye pain. Glaucoma may be asymptomatic until permanent damage to the optic nerve and retina occurs. Double vision is not a typical symptom of glaucoma. In terms of intraocular pressure, normal levels range from 10 to 21 mm Hg, making an intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg within the normal range. A soft globe on palpation is not a typical finding in glaucoma.

3. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

4. Activities of effective supervisors can be task-related or people-related activities. An example of a task-related supervisory activity is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Delegating is the act of assigning work to those capable and competent to do the work, making it a task-related supervisory activity. Coaching, evaluating, and facilitating are people-related supervisory activities. Coaching involves guiding and developing individuals, evaluating entails assessing performance, and facilitating focuses on enabling tasks and processes. These activities are more centered on interacting with and supporting people rather than directly assigning tasks. Therefore, in the context of task-related activities, delegating stands out as the correct choice.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.

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